CCNP Routing & Switching Certification 300-115 Practice Exam Answers PDF and VCE

CCNP Routing & Switching Certification 300-115 Practice Exam Answers PDF and VCE
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Exam A

QUESTION 1
An EtherChannel bundle has been established between a Cisco switch and a corporate web server. The network administrator noticed that only one of the EtherChannel links is being utilized to reach the web server. What should be done on the Cisco switch to allow for better EtherChannel utilization to the corporate web server?

A. Enable Cisco Express Forwarding to allow for more effective traffic sharing over the EtherChannel bundle.
B. Adjust the EtherChannel load-balancing method based on destination IP addresses.
C. Disable spanning tree on all interfaces that are participating in the EtherChannel bundle.
D. Use link-state tracking to allow for improved load balancing of traffic upon link failure to the server.
E. Adjust the EtherChannel load-balancing method based on source IP addresses.

Correct Answer: E

Explanation:
EtherChannel load balancing can use MAC addresses, IP addresses, or Layer 4 port numbers, and either source mode, destination mode, or both. The mode you select applies to all EtherChannels that you configure on the switch. Use the option that provides the greatest variety in your configuration. For example, if the traffic on a channel only goes to a single MAC address (which is the case in this example, since all traffic is going to the same web server), use of the destination MAC address results in the choice of the same link in the channel each time. Use of source addresses or IP addresses can result in a better load balance.
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/lan-switching/ etherchannel/12023-4.html

QUESTION 2
Interface FastEthernet0/1 is configured as a trunk interface that allows all VLANs.
This command is configured globally:
monitor session 2 filter vlan 1 – 8, 39, 52
What is the result of the implemented command?

A. All VLAN traffic is sent to the SPAN destination interface.
B. Traffic from VLAN 4 is not sent to the SPAN destination interface.
C. Filtering a trunked SPAN port effectively disables SPAN operations for all VLANs.
D. The trunk’s native VLAN must be changed to something other than VLAN 1.
E. Traffic from VLANs 1 to 8, 39, and 52 is replicated to the SPAN destination port.

Correct Answer: E

Explanation:
The “monitor session filter” command is used to specify which VLANS are to be port mirrored using SPAN.
This example shows how to monitor VLANs 1 through 5 and VLAN 9 when the SPAN source is a trunk interface:
Switch(config)# monitor session 2 filter vlan 1 – 5 , 9
http://www.cisco.com/ c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst4500/12-2/25ew/configuration/guide/conf/span.html/ index.html#wp1066836

QUESTION 3
A network engineer notices inconsistent Cisco Discovery Protocol neighbors according to the diagram thatis provided. The engineer notices only a single neighbor that uses Cisco Discovery Protocol, but it has several routing neighbor relationships. What would cause the output to show only the single neighbor?

A. The routers are connected via a Layer 2 switch.
B. IP routing is disabled on neighboring devices.
C. Cisco Express Forwarding is enabled locally.
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol advertisements are inconsistent between the local and remote devices.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
If all of the routers are connected to each other using a layer 2 switch, then each router will only have the single switch port that it connects to as its neighbor. Even though multiple routing neighbors can be formed over a layer 2 network, only the physical port that it connects to will be seen as a CDP neighbor. CDP can be used to determine the physical topology, but not necessarily the logical topology.

QUESTION 4
After the implementation of several different types of switches from different vendors, a network engineer notices that directly connected devices that use Cisco Discovery Protocol are not visible. Which vendorneutral protocol could be used to resolve this issue?

A. Local Area Mobility
B. Link Layer Discovery Protocol
C. NetFlow
D. Directed Response Protocol

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
The Link Layer Discovery Protocol (LLDP) is a vendor-neutral link layer protocol in the Internet Protocol Suite used by network devices for advertising their identity, capabilities, and neighbors on an IEEE 802 local area network, principally wired Ethernet. LLDP performs functions similar to several proprietary protocols, such as the Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP).
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/ Link_Layer_Discovery_Protocol

QUESTION 5
Several new switches have been added to the existing network as VTP clients. All of the new switches have been configured with the same VTP domain, password, and version. However, VLANs are not passing from the VTP server (existing network) to the VTP clients. What must be done to fix this?

A. Remove the VTP domain name from all switches with “null” and then replace it with the new domain name.
B. Configure a different native VLAN on all new switches that are configured as VTP clients.
C. Provision one of the new switches to be the VTP server and duplicate information from the existing network.
D. Ensure that all switch interconnects are configured as trunks to allow VTP information to be transferred.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
VTP allows switches to advertise VLAN information between other members of the same VTP domain.
VTP allows a consistent view of the switched network across all switches. There are several reasons why the VLAN information can fail to be exchanged.
Verify these items if switches that run VTP fail to exchange VLAN information:
VTP information only passes through a trunk port. Make sure that all ports that interconnect switches are configured as trunks and are actually trunking. Make sure that if EtherChannels are created between two switches, only Layer 2 EtherChannels propagate VLAN information.
Make sure that the VLANs are active in all the devices.
One of the switches must be the VTP server in a VTP domain. All VLAN changes must be done on this
switch in order to have them propagated to the VTP clients.
The VTP domain name must match and it is case sensitive. CISCO and cisco are two different domain names.
Make sure that no password is set between the server and client. If any password is set, make sure that the password is the same on both sides.
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk689/technologies_tech_note09186a0080890613.shtml

QUESTION 6
After implementing VTP, the extended VLANs are not being propagated to other VTP switches. What should be configured for extended VLANs?

A. VTP does not support extended VLANs and should be manually added to all switches.
B. Enable VTP version 3, which supports extended VLAN propagation.
C. VTP authentication is required when using extended VLANs because of their ability to cause network instability.
D. Ensure that all switches run the same Cisco IOS version. Extended VLANs will not propagate to different IOS versions when extended VLANs are in use.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
VTP version 1 and VTP version 2 do not propagate configuration information for extended- range VLANs (VLAN numbers 1006 to 4094). You must configure extended-range VLANs manually on each network device.
VTP version 3 supports extended-range VLANs (VLAN numbers 1006 to 4094).
If you convert from VTP version 3 to VTP version 2, the VLANs in the range 1006 to 4094 are removed from VTP control.

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. Switch A, B, and C are trunked together and have been properly configured for VTP. Switch C receives VLAN information from the VTP server Switch A, but Switch B does not receive any VLAN information. What is the most probable cause of this behavior?

A. Switch B is configured in transparent mode.
B. Switch B is configured with an access port to Switch A, while Switch C is configured with a trunk port to Switch B.
C. The VTP revision number of the Switch B is higher than that of Switch A.
D. The trunk between Switch A and Switch B is misconfigured.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
VTP transparent switches do not participate in VTP. A VTP transparent switch does not advertise its VLAN configuration and does not synchronize its VLAN configuration based on received advertisements, but transparent switches do forward VTP advertisements that they receive out their trunk ports in VTP Version 2.

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. Switch A, B, and C are trunked together and have been properly configured for VTP. Switch B has all VLANs, but Switch C is not receiving traffic from certain VLANs. What would cause this issue?

A. A VTP authentication mismatch occurred between Switch A and Switch
B. B. The VTP revision number of Switch B is higher than that of Switch A.
C. VTP pruning is configured globally on all switches and it removed VLANs from the trunk interface that is connected to Switch C.
D. The trunk between Switch A and Switch B is misconfigured.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
VTP pruning increases network available bandwidth by restricting flooded traffic to those trunk links that the traffic must use to reach the destination devices.
Without VTP pruning, a switch floods broadcast, multicast, and unknown unicast traffic across all trunk links within a VTP domain even though receiving switches might discard them. VTP pruning is disabled by default. VTP pruning blocks unneeded flooded traffic to VLANs on trunk ports that are included in the pruning-eligible list.
The best explanation for why switch C is not seeing traffic from only some of the VLANs, is that VTP pruning has been configured.

QUESTION 9
After the recent upgrade of the switching infrastructure, the network engineer notices that the port roles that were once “blocking” are now defined as “alternate” and “backup.” What is the reason for this change?

A. The new switches are using RSTP instead of legacy IEEE 802.1D STP.
B. IEEE 802.1D STP and PortFast have been configured by default on all newly implemented Cisco Catalyst switches.
C. The administrator has defined the switch as the root in the STP domain.
D. The port roles have been adjusted based on the interface bandwidth and timers of the new Cisco Catalyst switches.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
RSTP works by adding an alternative port and a backup port compared to STP.
These ports are allowed to immediately enter the forwarding state rather than passively wait for the network to converge.
RSTP bridge port roles:
Root port A forwarding port that is the closest to the root bridge in terms of path cost Designated port A forwarding port for every LAN segment
Alternate port A best alternate path to the root bridge. This path is different than using the root port.
The alternative port moves to the forwarding state if there is a failure on the designated port for the segment.
Backup port A backup/redundant path to a segment where another bridge port already connects.
The backup port applies only when a single switch has two links to the same segment (collision domain).
To have two links to the same collision domain, the switch must be attached to a hub.
Disabled port Not strictly part of STP, a network administrator can manually disable a port.

QUESTION 10
An administrator recently configured all ports for rapid transition using PortFast. After testing, it has been determined that several ports are not transitioning as they should. What is the reason for this?

A. RSTP has been enabled per interface and not globally.
B. The STP root bridge selection is forcing key ports to remain in non-rapid transitioning mode.
C. STP is unable to achieve rapid transition for trunk links.
D. The switch does not have the processing power to ensure rapid transition for all ports.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
RSTP can only achieve rapid transition to the forwarding state on edge ports and on point-to- point links, not on trunk links. The link type is automatically derived from the duplex mode of a port. A port that operates in full-duplex is assumed to be point-to-point, while a half-duplex port is considered as a shared port by default.
This automatic link type setting can be overridden by explicit configuration. In switched networks today, most links operate in full-duplex mode and are treated as point-to-point links by RSTP. This makes them candidates for rapid transition to the forwarding state.

QUESTION 11
Which technique automatically limits VLAN traffic to only the switches that require it?

A. access lists
B. DTP in nonegotiate
C. VTP pruning
D. PBR

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
VTP pruning enhances network bandwidth use by reducing unnecessary flooded traffic, such as broadcast, multicast, unknown, and flooded unicast packets to only the switches that require it. VTP pruning increasesavailable bandwidth by restricting flooded traffic to those trunk links that the traffic must use to access the appropriate network devices. By default, VTP pruning is disabled.

QUESTION 12
What effect does the mac address-table aging-time 180 command have on the MAC address- table?

A. This is how long a dynamic MAC address will remain in the CAM table.
B. The MAC address-table will be flushed every 3 minutes.
C. The default timeout period will be 360 seconds.
D. ARP requests will be processed less frequently by the switch.
E. The MAC address-table will hold addresses 180 seconds longer than the default of 10 minutes.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
You can configure the amount of time that an entry (the packet source MAC address and port that packet ingresses) remain in the MAC table. To configure the aging time for all MAC addresses, perform this task:
Command Purpose
Step 1
switch# configure
Enters configuration mode.
terminal
Step 2
switch(config)# mac-Specifies the time before an entry ages out address-table aging- and is discarded
from the MAC address table. time seconds [vlan The range is from 0 to 1000000; the default is vlan_id]
300 seconds.
Entering the value 0 disables the MAC aging. If a VLAN is not specified, the aging specification applies to all VLANs. This example shows how to set the aging time for entries in the MAC address table to 600 seconds (10 minutes):
switch# configure terminal
switch(config)# mac-address-table aging-time 600

QUESTION 13
While working in the core network building, a technician accidently bumps the fiber connection between
two core switches and damages one of the pairs of fiber. As designed, the link was placed into a nonforwarding state due to a fault with UDLD. After the damaged cable was replaced, the link did not recover.
What solution allows the network switch to automatically recover from such an issue?

A. macros
B. errdisable autorecovery
C. IP Event Dampening
D. command aliases
E. Bidirectional Forwarding Detection

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
There are a number of events which can disable a link on a Catalyst switch, such as the detection of a loopback, UDLD failure, or a broadcast storm. By default, manual intervention by an administrator is necessary to restore the interface to working order; this can be done by issuing shutdown followed by no shutdown on the interface. The idea behind requiring administrative action is so that a human engineer can intercede, assess, and (ideally) correct the issue. However, some configurations may be prone to accidental violations, and a steady recurrence of these can amount to a huge time sink for the administrative staff.This is where errdisable autorecovery can be of great assistance. We can configure the switch to automatically re-enable any error-disabled interfaces after a specified timeout period. This gives the offending issue a chance to be cleared by the user (for example, by removing an unapproved device) without the need for administrative intervention.

QUESTION 14
A network engineer deployed a switch that operates the LAN base feature set and decides to use the SDM VLAN template. The SDM template is causing the CPU of the switch to spike during peak working hours. What is the root cause of this issue?

A. The VLAN receives additional frames from neighboring switches.
B. The SDM VLAN template causes the MAC address-table to overflow.
C. The VLAN template disables routing in hardware.
D. The switch needs to be rebooted before the SDM template takes effect.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
SDM Template Notes:
All templates are predefined. There is no way to edit template category individual values.
The switch reload is required to use a new SDM template.
The ACL merge algorithm, as opposed to the original access control entries (ACEs) configured by the user, generate the number of TCAM entries listed for security and QoS ACEs.
The first eight lines (up to Security ACEs) represent approximate hardware boundaries set when a template is used. If the boundary is exceeded, all processing overflow is sent to the CPU which can have a major impact on the performance of the switch. Choosing the VLAN template will actually disable routing (number of entry for unicast or multicast route is zero) in hardware.

QUESTION 15
An access switch has been configured with an EtherChannel port. After configuring SPAN to monitor this port, the network administrator notices that not all traffic is being replicated to the management server. What is a cause for this issue?

A. VLAN filters are required to ensure traffic mirrors effectively.
B. SPAN encapsulation replication must be enabled to capture EtherChannel destination traffic.
C. The port channel can be used as a SPAN source, but not a destination.
D. RSPAN must be used to capture EtherChannel bidirectional traffic.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
A source port or EtherChannel is a port or EtherChannel monitored for traffic analysis. You can configure both Layer 2 and Layer 3 ports and EtherChannels as SPAN sources. SPAN can monitor one or more source ports or EtherChannels in a single SPAN session. You can configure ports or EtherChannels in any VLAN as SPAN sources. Trunk ports or EtherChannels can be configured as sources and mixed with nontrunk sources. A port-channel interface (an EtherChannel) can be a SPAN source, but not a destination.

QUESTION 16
A DHCP configured router is connected directly to a switch that has been provisioned with DHCP snooping. IP Source Guard with the ip verify source port-security command is configured under the interfaces that connect to all DHCP clients on the switch. However, clients are not receiving an IP address via the DHCP server. Which option is the cause of this issue?

A. The DHCP server does not support information option 82.
B. The DHCP client interfaces have storm control configured.
C. Static DHCP bindings are not configured on the switch.
D. DHCP snooping must be enabled on all VLANs, even if they are not utilized for dynamic address allocation.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
A switch is added into the production network to increase port capacity. A network engineer is configuring the switch for DHCP snooping and IP Source Guard, but is unable to configure ip verify source under several of the interfaces. Which option is the cause of the problem?

A. The local DHCP server is disabled prior to enabling IP Source Guard.
B. The interfaces are configured as Layer 3 using the no switchport command.
C. No VLANs exist on the switch and/or the switch is configured in VTP transparent mode.
D. The switch is configured for sdm prefer routing as the switched database management template.
E. The configured SVIs on the switch have been removed for the associated interfaces.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
The command storm-control broadcast level 75 65 is configured under the switch port connected to the corporate mail server. In which three ways does this command impact the traffic? (Choose three)

A. SNMP traps are sent by default when broadcast traffic reaches 65% of the lower-level threshold.
B. The switchport is disabled when unicast traffic reaches 75% of the total interface bandwidth.
C. The switch resumes forwarding broadcasts when they are below 65% of bandwidth.
D. Only broadcast traffic is limited by this particular storm control configuration.
E. Multicast traffic is dropped at 65% and broadcast traffic is dropped at 75% of the total interface bandwidth.
F. The switch drops broadcasts when they reach 75% of bandwidth.

Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 19
After UDLD is implemented, a Network Administrator noticed that one port stops receiving UDLD packets. This port continues to reestablish until after eight failed retries. The port then transitions into the errdisable state. Which option describes what causes the port to go into the errdisable state?

A. Normal UDLD operations that prevent traffic loops.
B. UDLD port is configured in aggressive mode.
C. UDLD is enabled globally.
D. UDLD timers are inconsistent.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
With UDLD aggressive mode enabled, when a port on a bidirectional link that has a UDLD neighbor relationship established stops receiving UDLD packets, UDLD tries to reestablish the connection with the neighbor. After eight failed retries, the port is disabled.

QUESTION 20
After reviewing UDLD status on switch ports, an engineer notices that the current bidirectional state for an access port is “Unknown.” Which statement describes what this indicates about the status of the port?

A. The port is fully operational and no known issues are detected.
B. The bidirectional status of “unknown” indicates that the port will go into the disabled state because it stopped receiving UDLD packets from its neighbor.
C. UDLD moved into aggressive mode after inconsistent acknowledgements were detected.
D. The UDLD port is placed in the “unknown” state for 5 seconds until the next UDLD packet is received on the interface.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
By default, UDLD is disabled on all interfaces. We can enable UDLD globally on the device, or individually on specific interfaces with the command udld port. This enables UDLD in normal mode.
It would be prohibitively difficult to coordinate the configuration of UDLD on both ends of a link at the same time, so when UDLD is first enabled and does not detect a neighbor the link state is considered unknown, which is not necessarily an error condition. The port will remain operational during this time. When UDLD is finally enabled on the other end, the status will transition to bidirectional.

QUESTION 21
Pilot testing of the new switching infrastructure finds that when the root port is lost, STP immediately replaces the root port with an alternative root port. Which spanning-tree technology is used to accomplish backup root port selection?

A. PVST+
B. PortFast
C. BackboneFast
D. UplinkFast
E. Loop Guard
F. UDLD

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
If a switch loses connectivity, it begins using the alternate paths as soon as the spanning tree selects a new root port. By enabling UplinkFast with the spanning-tree uplinkfast global configuration command, you can accelerate the choice of a new root port when a link or switch fails or when the spanning tree reconfigures itself. The root port transitions to the forwarding state immediately without going through the listening and learning states, as it would with the normal spanning-tree procedures. UplinkFast provides fast convergence after a direct link failure and achieves load balancing between redundant Layer 2 links using uplink groups. An uplink group is a set of Layer 2 interfaces (per VLAN), only one of which is forwarding at any given time. Specifically, an uplink group consists of the root port (which is forwarding) and a set of blocked ports, except for self-looping ports. The uplink group provides an alternate path in case the currently forwarding link fails.

QUESTION 22
A network engineer must adjust the STP interface attributes to influence root port selection.
Which two elements are used to accomplish this? (Choose two)

A. port-priority
B. cost
C. forward-timers
D. link type
E. root guard

Correct Answer: AB

Explanation:
Spanning tree forces redundant data paths into a standby (blocked) state. If a network segment in the spanning tree fails and a redundant path exists, the spanning-tree algorithm recalculates the spanning-tree topology and activates the standby path. Switches send and receive spanning-tree frames, called bridge protocol data units (BPDUs), at regular intervals. The switches do not forward these frames but use them to construct a loop-free path. BPDUs contain information about the sending switch and its ports, including switch and MAC addresses, switch priority, port priority, and path cost. Spanning tree uses this information to elect the root switch and root port for the switched network and the root port and designated port for each switched segment. When two ports on a switch are part of a loop, the spanning-tree port priority and path cost settings control which port is put in the forwarding state and which is put in the blocking state.
The spanning-tree port priority value represents the location of a port in the network topology and how well it is located to pass traffic. The path cost value represents the media speed.

QUESTION 23
A network engineer must set the load balance method on an existing port channel. Which action must be done to apply a new load balancing method?

A. Configure the new load balancing method using port-channel load-balance.
B. Adjust the switch SDM back to “default”.
C. Ensure that IP CEF is enabled globally to support all load balancing methods.
D. Upgrade the PFC to support the latest load balancing methods.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
EtherChannel balances the traffic load across the links in a channel through the reduction of part of the binary pattern that the addresses in the frame form to a numerical value that selects one of the links in the channel.
EtherChannel load balancing can use MAC addresses or IP addresses, source or destination addresses, or both source and destination addresses. The mode applies to all EtherChannels that are configured on the switch.
You configure the load balancing and forwarding method with use of the port-channel load-balance {dst-ip
| dst-mac | src-dst-ip | src-dst-mac | src-ip | src-mac} global configuration command.

QUESTION 24
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer investigates a recent network failure and notices that one of theinterfaces on the switch is still down. What is causing the line protocol on this interface to be shown as down?

A. There is a layer 1 physical issue.
B. There is a speed mismatch on the interface.
C. The interface is configured as the target of the SPAN session.
D. The interface is configured as the source of the SPAN session.
E. There is a duplex mismatch on the interface.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
With the SAPN destination port, the state of the destination port is up/down by design. The interface shows the port in this state in order to make it evident that the port is currently not usable as a production port. This is the normal operational state for SPAN destinations.

QUESTION 25
While doing network discovery using Cisco Discovery Protocol, it is found that rapid error tracking is not currently enabled. Which option must be enabled to allow for enhanced reporting mechanisms using Cisco Discovery Protocol?

A. Cisco Discovery Protocol version 2
B. Cisco IOS Embedded Event Manager
C. logging buffered
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol source interface
E. Cisco Discovery Protocol logging options

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
CDP Version 1 — This is the first version of CDP which was used for the discovery of Cisco devices in the network. This version is mainly used for backward compatibility.
CDP Version 2 — This is the most recent version of CDP which has enhanced features such as rapid reporting mechanism, which is used to track down errors and minimize costly downtime. It allows you to track instances even if the native VLAN ID or port duplex states do not match between connecting devices. This is the default version on all switches.

QUESTION 26
After port security is deployed throughout an enterprise campus, the network team has been overwhelmed with port reset requests. They decide to configure the network to automate the process of re-enabling userports. Which command accomplishes this task?

A. switch(config)# errdisable recovery interval 180
B. switch(config)# errdisable recovery cause psecure-violation
C. switch(config)# switchport port-security protect
D. switch(config)# switchport port-security aging type inactivity
E. switch(config)# errdisable recovery cause security-violation

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
The network monitoring application alerts a network engineer of a client PC that is acting as a rogue DHCP server. Which two commands help trace this PC when the MAC address is known? (Choose two)

A. switch# show mac address-table
B. switch# show port-security
C. switch# show ip verify source
D. switch# show ip arp inspection
E. switch# show mac address-table address

Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 28
A network engineer has just deployed a non-Cisco device in the network and wants to get information about it from a connected device. Cisco Discovery Protocol is not supported, so the open standard protocol must be configured. Which protocol does the network engineer configure on both devices to accomplish this?

A. IRDP
B. LLDP
C. NDP
D. LLTD

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
The Link Layer Discovery Protocol (LLDP) is a vendor-neutral link layer protocol in the Internet Protocol Suite used by network devices for advertising their identity, capabilities, and neighbors on an IEEE 802 local area network, principally wired Ethernet. LLDP performs functions similar to several proprietary protocols, such as the Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP).

QUESTION 29
A manager tells the network engineer to permit only certain VLANs across a specific trunk interface. Which option can be configured to accomplish this?

A. allowed VLAN list
B. VTP pruning
C. VACL
D. L2P tunneling

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
When a trunk link is established, all of the configured VLANs are allowed to send and receive traffic across the link. VLANs 1 through 1005 are allowed on each trunk by default. However, VLAN traffic can be removed from the allowed list. This keeps traffic from the VLANs from passing over the trunk link.
Note: The allowed VLAN list on both the ends of the trunk link should be the same.
For Integrated Cisco IOS Software based switches, perform these steps:
1.To restrict the traffic that a trunk carries, issue the switchport trunk vlan-list interface configuration command.
This removes specific VLANs from the allowed list.

QUESTION 30
For client server failover purposes, the application server team has indicated that they must not have the standard 30 second delay before their switchport enters a forwarding state. For their disaster recovery feature to operate successfully, they require the switchport to enter a forwarding state immediately. Which spanning-tree feature satisfies this requirement?

A. Rapid Spanning-Tree
B. Spanning-Tree Timers
C. Spanning-Tree FastPort
D. Spanning-Tree PortFast
E. Spanning-Tree Fast Forward

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
In order to allow immediate transition of the port into forwarding state, enable the STP PortFast feature.
PortFast immediately transitions the port into STP forwarding mode upon linkup. The port still participates in STP. So if the port is to be a part of the loop, the port eventually transitions into STP blocking mode.
Example configuration:
Switch-C# configure terminal
Switch-C(config)# interface range fa0/3 – 24
Switch-C(config-if-range)# spanning-tree portfast

QUESTION 31
Which command does a network engineer use to verify the spanning-tree status for VLAN 10?

A. switch# show spanning-tree vlan 10
B. switch# show spanning-tree bridge
C. switch# show spanning-tree brief
D. switch# show spanning-tree summary
E. switch# show spanning-tree vlan 10 brief

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 32
A new network that consists of several switches has been connected together via trunking interfaces. If all switches currently have the default VTP domain name “null”, which statement describes what happens when a domain name is configured on one of the switches?

A. The switch with the non-default domain name restores back to “null” upon reboot.
B. Switches with higher revision numbers does not accept the new domain name.
C. VTP summary advertisements are sent out of all ports with the new domain name.
D. All other switches with the default domain name become VTP clients.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
By default, a switch will have a domain name of NULL and no password. If the switch hears a VTP advertisement it will automatically learn the VTP domain name, VLANs, and the configuration revision number.
Summary advertisements sent out every 300 seconds and every time a change occurs on the VLAN database. Contained in a summary advertisement:
VTP version
Domain name
Configuration revision number
Time stamp
MD5 encryption hash code

QUESTION 33
While troubleshooting a network outage, a network engineer discovered an unusually high level of broadcast traffic coming from one of the switch interfaces. Which option decreases consumption of bandwidth used by broadcast traffic?

A. storm control
B. SDM routing
C. Cisco IOS parser
D. integrated routing and bridging
E. Dynamic ARP Inspection

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 34
A network engineer is setting up a new switched network. The network is expected to grow and add many new VLANs in the future. Which Spanning Tree Protocol should be used to reduce switch resources and managerial burdens that are associated with multiple spanning-tree instances?

A. RSTP
B. PVST
C. MST
D. PVST+

E. RPVST+Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Multiple Spanning Tree (MST) extends the IEEE 802.1w RST algorithm to multiple spanning trees. The main purpose of MST is to reduce the total number of spanning-tree instances to match the physical topology of the network and thus reduce the CPU cycles of a switch.
PVRST+ runs STP instances for each VLAN and does not take into consideration the physical topology that might not require many different STP topologies. MST, on the other hand, uses a minimum number of STP instances to match the number of physical topologies present.

QUESTION 35
Which statement about the use of SDM templates in a Cisco switch is true?

A. SDM templates are used to configure system resources in the switch to optimize support for specific features, depending on how the switch is used in the network.
B. SDM templates are used to create Layer 3 interfaces (switch virtual interfaces) to permit hosts in one VLAN to communicate with hosts in another VLAN.
C. SDM templates are used to configure ACLs that protect networks and specific hosts from unnecessary or unwanted traffic.
D. SDM templates are used to configure a set of ACLs that allows the users to manage the flow of traffic handled by the route processor.
E. SDM templates are configured by accessing the switch using the web interface.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
You can use SDM templates to configure system resources in the switch to optimize support for specific features, depending on how the switch is used in the network. You can select a template to provide maximum system usage for some functions; for example, use the default template to balance resources, and use access template to obtain maximum ACL usage. To allocate hardware resources for different usages, the switch SDM templates prioritize system resources to optimize support for certain features.

QUESTION 36
Which SDM template disables routing and supports the maximum number of unicast MAC addresses?

A. VLAN
B. access
C. default
D. routing

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
To allocate ternary content addressable memory (TCAM) resources for different usages, the switch SDM templates prioritize system resources to optimize support for certain features. You can select SDM templates to optimize these features:
Access–The access template maximizes system resources for access control lists (ACLs) to accommodate a large number of ACLs.
Default–The default template gives balance to all functions.
Routing–The routing template maximizes system resources for IPv4 unicast routing, typically required for a router or aggregator in the center of a network.VLANs–The VLAN template disables routing and supports the maximum number of unicast MAC addresses. It would typically be selected for a Layer 2 switch.

QUESTION 37
Which SDM template is the most appropriate for a Layer 2 switch that provides connectivity to a large number of clients?

A. VLAN
B. default
C. access
D. routing

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
To allocate ternary content addressable memory (TCAM) resources for different usages, the switch SDM templates prioritize system resources to optimize support for certain features. You can select SDM templates to optimize these features:
Access–The access template maximizes system resources for access control lists (ACLs) to accommodate a large number of ACLs.
Default–The default template gives balance to all functions.
Routing–The routing template maximizes system resources for IPv4 unicast routing, typically required for a router or aggregator in the center of a network.
VLANs–The VLAN template disables routing and supports the maximum number of unicast MAC addresses (clients). It would typically be selected for a Layer 2 switch.

QUESTION 38
In a Cisco switch, what is the default period of time after which a MAC address ages out and is discarded?

A. 100 seconds
B. 180 seconds
C. 300 seconds
D. 600 seconds

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/configuration/guide/cli/
MACAddress.html

QUESTION 39
If a network engineer applies the command mac-address-table notification mac-move on a Cisco switch port, when is a syslog message generated??

A. A MAC address or host moves between different switch ports.
B. A new MAC address is added to the content-addressable memory.
C. A new MAC address is removed from the content-addressable memory.
D. More than 64 MAC addresses are added to the content-addressable memory.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/lanswitch/command/reference/lsw_m1.html

QUESTION 40
Which option is a possible cause for an errdisabled interface?

A. routing loop
B. cable unplugged
C. STP loop guard
D. security violation

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
There are various reasons for the interface to go into errdisable.
The reason can be:
Duplex mismatch
Port channel misconfiguration
BPDU guard violation
UniDirectional Link Detection (UDLD) condition
Late-collision detection
Link-flap detection
Security violation
Port Aggregation Protocol (PAgP) flap
Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP) guard
DHCP snooping rate-limit
Incorrect GBIC / Small Form-Factor Pluggable (SFP) module or cable Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
inspection
Inline power
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk621/ technologies_tech_note09186a00806cd87b.shtml

QUESTION 41
What is the default value for the errdisable recovery interval in a Cisco switch?

A. 30 seconds
B. 100 seconds
C. 300 seconds
D. 600 seconds

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk621/technologies_tech_note09186a00806cd87b.shtml

QUESTION 42
Which statement about LLDP-MED is true?

A. LLDP-MED is an extension to LLDP that operates between endpoint devices and network devices.
B. LLDP-MED is an extension to LLDP that operates only between network devices.
C. LLDP-MED is an extension to LLDP that operates only between endpoint devices.
D. LLDP-MED is an extension to LLDP that operates between routers that run BGP.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
LLDP for Media Endpoint Devices (LLDP-MED) is an extension to LLDP that operates between endpoint devices such as IP phones and network devices such as switches. It specifically provides support for voice over IP (VoIP) applications and provides additional TLVs for capabilities discovery, network policy, Power over Ethernet, and inventory management.

QUESTION 43
Which statement about Cisco devices learning about each other through Cisco Discovery Protocol is true?

A. Each device sends periodic advertisements to multicast address 01:00:0C:CC:CC:CC.
B. Each device broadcasts periodic advertisements to all of its neighbors.
C. Each device sends periodic advertisements to a central device that builds the network topology.
D. Each device sends periodic advertisements to all IP addresses in its ARP table.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
Cisco devices send periodic CDP announcements to the multicast destination address 01-00-0c-cc-cc-cc, out each connected network interface. These multicast packets may be received by Cisco switches and other networking devices that support CDP into their connected network interface.

QUESTION 44
Which option lists the information that is contained in a Cisco Discovery Protocol advertisement?

A. native VLAN IDs, port-duplex, hardware platform
B. native VLAN IDs, port-duplex, memory errors
C. native VLAN IDs, memory errors, hardware platform
D. port-duplex, hardware platform, memory errors

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/12_2/configfun/configuration/guide/fcf015.html

QUESTION 45
Which option describes a limitation of LLDP?

A. LLDP cannot provide information about VTP.
B. LLDP does not support TLVs.
C. LLDP can discover only Windows servers.
D. LLDP can discover up to two devices per port.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 46
Which statement about the UDLD protocol is true?

A. UDLD is a Cisco-proprietary Layer 2 protocol that enables devices to monitor the physical status of links and detect unidirectional failures.
B. UDLD is a Cisco-proprietary Layer 2 protocol that enables devices to advertise their identity, capabilities, and neighbors on a local area network.
C. UDLD is a standardized Layer 2 protocol that enables devices to monitor the physical status of links and detect unidirectional failures.
D. UDLD is a standardized Layer 2 protocol that enables devices to advertise their identity, capabilities, and neighbors on a local area network.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 47
Which option lists the modes that are available for configuring UDLD on a Cisco switch?

A. normal and aggressive
B. active and aggressive
C. normal and active
D. normal and passive
E. normal and standby

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
The Cisco-proprietary UDLD protocol monitors the physical configuration of the links between devices and ports that support UDLD. UDLD detects the existence of unidirectional links. When a unidirectional link is detected, UDLD puts the affected port into the errdisabled state and alerts the user. UDLD can operate in either normal or aggressive mode.

QUESTION 48
What is the default interval at which Cisco devices send Cisco Discovery Protocol advertisements?

A. 30 seconds
B. 60 seconds
C. 120 seconds
D. 300 seconds
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 49
Which statement about Cisco Discovery Protocol configuration on a Cisco switch is true?

A. CDP is enabled by default and can be disabled globally with the command no cdp run.B. CDP is disabled by default and can be enabled globally with the command cdp enable.
C. CDP is enabled by default and can be disabled globally with the command no cdp enable.
D. CDP is disabled by default and can be enabled globally with the command cdp run.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 50
Which VTP mode is needed to configure an extended VLAN, when a switch is configured to use VTP versions 1 or 2?

A. transparent
B. client
C. server
D. Extended VLANs are only supported in version 3 and not in versions 1 or 2.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
VTP version 1 and version 2 support VLANs 1 to 1000 only. Extended-range VLANs are supported only in VTP version 3.
If converting from VTP version 3 to VTP version 2, VLANs in the range 1006 to 4094 are removed from VTP control.
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/lan/catalyst6500/ios/12.2SX/configuration/guide/vtp.html

QUESTION 51
Refer to the exhibit, which statement abort the current configuration on port GigabitEthernet2/0/1 is true?

A. It is an access port configured for a phone and a PC
B. It is a trunk port and the native VLAN is VLAN1
C. It is a trunk port and the natrve VL AN m VLAN 700
D. It is an access port in VLAN 700

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 52
Which two options are advantages of deploying VTPv3?(Choose two)

A. It stores the VTP domain password securely as a SHA-1 hash
B. It adds on FCS field at the end of each VTP frame for consistency checking
C. It supports the propagation of private VLANs.
D. It supports the use of AES to encrypt VTP messaging
E. It can be configured to allow only one VTP server to make changes to the VTP domain

Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 53
What is the size of the VLAN field inside an 802.1q frame?

A. 8-bit
B. 12-bit
C. 16-bit
D. 32-bit

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 54
What is the maximum number of VLANs that can be assigned to an access switchport without a voice VLAN?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 1024

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 55
Refer to the exhibit. Which option shows the expected result if a show vlan command is issued?

A.

B.

C.

D.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 56
Which feature is automatically enabled when a voice VLAN is configured, but not automatically disabled when a voice VLAN is removed?

A. portfast
B. port-security
C. spanning tree
D. storm control

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 57
In which portion of the frame is the 802.1q header found?

A. within the Ethernet header
B. within the Ethernet payload
C. within the Ethernet FCS
D. within the Ethernet source MAC address

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 58
Which VLAN range is eligible to be pruned when a network engineer enables VTP pruning on a switch?

A. VLANs 1-1001
B. VLANs 1-4094
C. VLANs 2-1001
D. VLANs 2-4094

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 59
Which action allows a network engineer to limit a default VLAN from being propagated across all trunks?

A. Upgrade to VTP version 3 for advanced feature set support.
B. Enable VTP pruning on the VTP server.
C. Manually prune default VLAN with switchport trunk allowed vlans remove.
D. Use trunk pruning vlan 1.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 60
What is required for a LAN switch to support 802.1q Q-in-Q encapsulation?

A. Support less than 1500 MTU
B. Support 1504 MTU or higher
C. Support 1522 layer 3 IP and IPX packet
D. Support 1547 MTU only

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 61
Refer to the exhibit. How many bytes are added to each frame as a result of the configuration?

A. 4-bytes except the native VLAN
B. 8-bytes except the native VLAN
C. 4-bytes including native VLAN
D. 8-bytes including native VLAN

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 62
A network engineer configured a fault-tolerance link on Gigabit Ethernet links G0/1, G0/2, G0/3, and G0/4 between two switches using Ethernet port-channel. Which action allows interface G0/1 to always actively forward traffic in the port-channel?

A. Configure G0/1 as half duplex and G0/2 as full duplex.
B. Configure LACP port-priority on G0/1 to 1.
C. Configure LACP port-priority on G0/1 to 65535.
D. LACP traffic goes through G0/4 because it is the highest interface ID.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 63
Which statement about the use of PAgP link aggregation on a Cisco switch that is running Cisco IOS Software is true?

A. PAgP modes are off, auto, desirable, and on. Only the combinations auto-desirable, desirabledesirable, and on-on allow the formation of a channel.B. PAgP modes are active, desirable, and on. Only the combinations active-desirable, desirabledesirable, and on-on allow the formation of a channel.
C. PAgP modes are active, desirable, and on. Only the combinations active-active, desirable- desirable, and on-on allow the formation of a channel.
D. PAgP modes are off, active, desirable, and on. Only the combinations auto-auto, desirable- desirable, and on-on allow the formation of a channel.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 64
Refer to the exhibit. Which EtherChannel negotiation protocol is configured on the interface f0/13 – f0/15?

A. Link Combination Control Protocol
B. Port Aggregation Protocol
C. Port Combination Protocol
D. Link Aggregation Control Protocol

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 65
Refer to the exhibit. Users of PC-1 experience slow connection when a webpage is requested from the server. To increase bandwidth, the network engineer configured an EtherChannel on interfaces Fa1/0 and Fa0/1 of the server farm switch, as shown here:
Server_Switch#sh etherchannel load-balance EtherChannel Load-Balancing Operational State (src-mac):
Non-IP: Source MAC address
IPv4: Source MAC address
IPv6: Source IP address
Server_Switch#
However, traffic is still slow. Which action can the engineer take to resolve this issue?

A. Disable EtherChannel load balancing.
B. Upgrade the switch IOS to IP services image.
C. Change the load-balance method to dst-mac.
D. Contact Cisco TAC to report a bug on the switch.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 66
A network engineer changed the port speed and duplex setting of an existing EtherChannel bundle that uses the PAgP protocol. Which statement describes what happens to all ports in the bundle?

A. PAgP changes the port speed and duplex for all ports in the bundle.
B. PAgP drops the ports that do not match the configuration.
C. PAgP does not change the port speed and duplex for all ports in the bundle until the switch is rebooted.
D. PAgP changes the port speed but not the duplex for all ports in the bundle.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 67
Which statement about using EtherChannel on Cisco IOS switches is true?

A. A switch can support up to eight compatibly configured Ethernet interfaces in an EtherChannel.The EtherChannel provides full-duplex bandwidth up to 800 Mbps only for Fast EtherChannel or 8 Gbps only for Gigabit EtherChannel.
B. A switch can support up to 10 compatibly configured Ethernet interfaces in an EtherChannel.
The EtherChannel provides full-duplex bandwidth up to 1000 Mbps only for Fast EtherChannel or 8 Gbps only for Gigabit EtherChannel.
C. A switch can support up to eight compatibly configured Ethernet interfaces in an EtherChannel.
The EtherChannel provides full-duplex bandwidth up to 800 Mbps only for Fast EtherChannel or 16 Gbps only for Gigabit EtherChannel.
D. A switch can support up to 10 compatibly configured Ethernet interfaces in an EtherChannel.
The EtherChannel provides full-duplex bandwidth up to 1000 Mbps only for Fast EtherChannel or 10 Gbps only for Gigabit EtherChannel.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 68
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about switch S1 is true?

A. Physical port Fa0/13, Fa0/14, and Fa0/15 successfully formed a Layer 2 port-channel interface using an open standard protocol.
B. Logical port Fa0/13, Fa0/14, and Fa0/15 successfully formed a Layer 2 physical port- channel interface using a Cisco proprietary protocol.
C. Physical port Fa0/13, Fa0/14, and Fa0/15 successfully formed a Layer 3 port-channel interface using a
Cisco proprietary protocol.
D. Logical port Fa0/13, Fa0/14, and Fa0/15 successfully formed a Layer 3 physical port- channel interface using an open standard protocol.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 69
What happens on a Cisco switch that runs Cisco IOS when an RSTP-configured switch receives 802.1d BPDU?

A. 802.1d does not understand RSTP BPDUs because they are different versions, but when a RSTP switch receives an 802.1d BPDU, it responds with a 802.1d BPDU and eventually the two switches run 802.1d to communicate.
B. 802.1d understands RSTP BPDUs because they are the same version, but when a RSTP switch
receives a 802.1d BPDU, it responds with a 802.1d BPDU and eventually the two switches run 802.1d to communicate.
C. 802.1d does not understand RSTP BPDUs because they are different versions, but when a RSTP switch receives a 802.1d BPDU, it does not respond with a 802.1d BPDU.
D. 802.1d understands RSTP BPDUs because they are the same version, but when a RSTP switch receives a 802.1d BPDU, it does not respond with a 802.1d BPDU and eventually the two switches run 802.1d to communicate.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 70
When two MST instances (MST 1 and MST 2) are created on a switch, what is the total number of spanning-tree instances running on the switch?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 71
Refer to the exhibit. f1/0 and f1/1 have the same end-to-end path cost to the designated bridge. Which action is needed to modify the Layer 2 spanning-tree network so that traffic for PC1 VLAN from switch SW3 uses switchport f1/1 as a primary port?

A. Modify the spanning-tree port-priority on SW1 f1/1 to 0 and f1/0 to 16.
B. Modify the spanning-tree port-priority on SW1 f1/1 to 16 and f1/0 to 0.
C. Modify the spanning-tree port-priority on SW2 f1/1 to 0 and f1/0 to 16.
D. Modify the spanning-tree port-priority on SW2 f1/1 to 16 and f1/0 to 0.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 72
Refer to the exhibit. Why would the switch be considered as a root bridge?

A. The bridge priority is 1 and all ports are forwarding.
B. The switch priority for VLAN 1 and the macro specifies “This Bridge is the root”.
C. The bridge priority is 128.19 and all ports are forwarding.
D. The switch priority value is zero, it has the lowest priority value for VLAN 1.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 73
If StormControl is enabled on a port and the traffic reachesthe configured level, which two actions can be configured to occur?(Choose two)

A. Trap
B. notify admin
C. redirect traffic
D. log
E. shut down

Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 74
Which two options are advantages of deploying VTPv3?(Choose two)

A. It stores the VTP domain password securely as a SHA-1 hash.
B. It adds an FCS field at the end of each VTP frame for consistency checking.
C. It supports the propagation of private VLANs.
D. It supports the use of AES to encrypt VTP messaging.
E. It can be configured to allow only one VTP server to make changes to the VTP domain.

Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 75
A network engineer is trying to deploy a PC on a network. The engineer observes that when the PC is connected to the network, it takes 30 to 60 seconds for the PC to see any activity on the network interface card. Which Layer 2 enhancement can be used to eliminate this delay?

A. Configure port duplex and speed to auto negotiation.
B. Configure port to duplex full and speed 1000.
C. Configure spanning-tree portfast.
D. Configure no switchport.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 76
Refer to the exhibit. All ports are members of VLAN 10. Considering the default cost of upstream bridges to the root bridge is equal, which option will be the new root port for VLAN 10?

A. interface f0/13
B. interface f0/14
C. interface f0/15
D. interface f0/21Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 77
A network engineer configured an Ethernet switch using these commands.
Switchone(config) # Spanning-tree portfast bpdufilter default
Which statement about the spanning-tree portfast feature on the switch is true?

A. If an interface is enabled for portfast receives BDPU, the port goes through the spanning-tree listening, learning, and forwarding states.
B. If an interface is enabled for portfast receives BDPU, the port does not go through the spanning- tree listening, learning, and forwarding states.
C. If an interface is enabled for portfast receives BDPU, the port is shut down immediately.
D. If an interface is enabled for portfast receives BDPU, the port goes into the spanning- tree inconsistent state.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 78
Which statement describes what happens when a port configured with root guard receives a superior BPDU?

A. The port goes into errdisabled state and stops forwarding traffic.
B. The port goes into BPDU-inconsistent state and stops forwarding traffic.
C. The port goes into loop-inconsistent state and stops forwarding traffic.
D. The port goes into root-inconsistent state and stops forwarding traffic.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 79
Which option is a benefit of using VSS?

A. reduces cost
B. simplifies configuration
C. provides two independent supervisors with two different control planes
D. removes the need for a First Hop Redundancy Protocol

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 80
Which statement about restrictions for multichassis LACP is true?

A. It is available only on a Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series chassis.
B. It does not support 1Gb links.
C. Converting a port channel to mLACP can cause a service disruption.
D. It is not available in VSS.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 81
What is the maximum number of 10 Gigabit Ethernet connections that can be utilized in an EtherChannel for the virtual switch link?

A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 12

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 82
Which statement describes what happens if all VSL connections between the virtual switch members are lost?

A. Both virtual switch members cease to forward traffic.
B. The VSS transitions to the dual active recovery mode, and both virtual switch members continue to forward traffic independently.
C. The virtual switch members reload.
D. The VSS transitions to the dual active recovery mode, and only the new active virtual switch continues to forward traffic.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 83
Which statement describes what happens when a switch enters dual active recovery mode?

A. The switch shuts down and waits for the VSL link to be restored before sending traffic.
B. All interfaces are shut down in the formerly active virtual switch member, but the new active virtual switch forwards traffic on all links.
C. The switch continues to forward traffic out all links and enables spanning tree on VSL link and all other links to prevent loops.
D. The VSS detects which system was last in active state and shuts down the other switch.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 84
Which command globally enables AAA on a device?

A. aaa new-model
B. aaa authentication
C. aaa authorization
D. aaa accounting

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 85
Which AAA Authorization type includes PPP, SLIP, and ARAP connections?

A. network
B. IP mobile
C. EXEC
D. auth-proxy

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 86
Which authentication service is needed to configure 802.1x?

A. RADIUS with EAP Extension
B. TACACS+
C. RADIUS with CoA
D. RADIUS using VSA

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 87
When a Cisco Catalyst switch that is configured in VTP server mode is first booted, which two VLAN ranges are loaded on the switch?

A. all VLAN are in the VLAN database.
B. VLANs greater than 1005 in the startup-config file
C. the first 1005 VLANs in the VLAN database file
D. the first 1005 VLANs in the startup-config file
E. VLANs greater than 1005 in the VLAN database file

Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 88
An enterprise network has port security sticky enabled on all access ports.
A network administrator moves a PC from one office desk to another.
After the PC is moved, the network administrator clears the port security on the new network switch port connecting to the PC, but the port keeps going back into err-disabled mode.
Which two factors are possible causes of this issue?(Choose two)

A. Port security sticky exists on the new network switch port.
B. Port security sticky is disabled on the new network switch port.
C. Port security must be disabled on all access ports.
D. Port security is still enabled on the older network switch port.
E. Port security sticky is still enabled on the older network switch port.

Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 89
Refer to the exhibit. Which login credentials are required when connecting to the console port in this output?

A. none required
B. username cisco with password cisco
C. no username with password linepass
D. login authentication default

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 90
Refer to the exhibit. When a network administrator is attempting an SSH connection to the device, in which order does the device check the login credentials?

A. RADIUS server, local username, line password
B. RADIUS server, line password, local username
C. Line password, local username, RADIUS server
D. Line password, RADIUS server, local username

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 91
Which type of information does the DHCP snooping binding database contain?

A. untrusted hosts with leased IP addresses
B. trusted hosts with leased IP addresses
C. untrusted hosts with available IP addresses
D. trusted hosts with available IP addresses

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 92
Which switch feature determines validity based on IP-to-MAC address bindings that are stored in a trusted database?

A. Dynamic ARP Inspection
B. storm control
C. VTP pruning
D. DHCP snooping

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 93
Which command is needed to enable DHCP snooping if a switchport is connected to a DHCP server?

A. ip dhcp snooping trust
B. ip dhcp snooping
C. ip dhcp trust
D. ip dhcp snooping information

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 94
When you configure private VLANs on a switch, which port type connects the switch to the gateway router?

A. promiscuous
B. community
C. isolated
D. trunked

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 95
When you configure a private VLAN, which type of port must you configure the gateway router port as?

A. promiscuous port
B. isolated port
C. community port
D. access port

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 96
Which First Hop Redundancy Protocol is an IEEE Standard?

A. GLBP
B. HSRP
C. VRRP
D. OSPF

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 97
What is the default amount by which the hot standby priority for the router is decremented or incremented when the interface goes down or comes back up?

A. 1
B. 5
C. 10
D. 15

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 98
What is the maximum number of virtual MAC addresses that GLBP allows per group?

A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 99
Which gateway role is responsible for answering ARP requests for the virtual IP address in GLBP?

A. active virtual forwarder
B. active virtual router
C. active virtual gateway
D. designated router

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 100
Which VRRP router is responsible for forwarding packets that are sent to the IP addresses of the virtual router?

A. virtual router master
B. virtual router backup
C. virtual router active
D. virtual router standby

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 101
Which command correctly configures standby tracking for group 1 using the default decrement priority value?

A. standby 1 track 100
B. standby 1 track 100 decrement 1
C. standby 1 track 100 decrement 5
D. standby 1 track 100 decrement 20

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 102
Which command configures an HSRP group to become a slave of another HSRP group?

A. standby slave
B. standby group track
C. standby follow
D. standby group backup

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 103
Refer to the exhibit. Which option describes the reason for this message in a GLBP configuration?

A. Unavailable GLBP active forwarder
B. Incorrect GLBP IP address
C. HSRP configured on same interface as GLBP
D. Layer 2 loop

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 104
Lab Simulation – LACP with STP Sim
You work for SWITCH.com. They have just added a new switch (SwitchB) to the existing network as shown in the topology diagram.
RouterA is currently configured correctly and is providing the routing function for devices on SwitchA and SwitchB. SwitchA is currently configured correctly, but will need to be modified to support the addition of SwitchB. SwitchB has a minimal configuration. You have been tasked with competing the needed configuring of SwitchA and SwitchB. SwitchA and SwitchB use Cisco as the enable password.
Configuration Requirements for SwitchA
The VTP and STP configuration modes on SwitchA should not be modified.
– SwitchA needs to be the root switch for vlans 11, 12, 13, 21, 22 and 23. All other vlans should be left are their default values.
Configuration Requirements for SwitchB
– Vlan 21
Name: Marketing will support two servers attached to fa0/9 and fa0/10
– Vlan 22
Name: Sales will support two servers attached to fa0/13 and fa0/14
– Vlan 23
Name: Engineering will support two servers attached to fa0/15 and fa0/16
– Access ports that connect to server should transition immediately to forwarding state upon detecting the connection of a device.
– SwitchB VTP mode needs to be the same as SwitchA.
– SwitchB must operate in the same spanning tree mode as SwitchA
– No routing is to be configured on SwitchB
– Only the SVI vlan 1 is to be configured and it is to use address 192.168.1.11/24
Inter-switch Connectivity Configuration Requirements
– For operational and security reasons trunking should be unconditional and Vlans 1, 21, 22 and 23 should tagged when traversing the trunk link.
– The two trunks between SwitchA and SwitchB need to be configured in a mode that allows for the maximum use of their bandwidth for all vlans. This mode should be done with a non-proprietary protocol, with SwitchA controlling activation.
– Propagation of unnecessary broadcasts should be limited using manual pruning on this trunk link.

A. See the explanation

Correct Answer: A

SW-A (close to router)
SW-A#configure terminal
SW-A(config)#spanning-tree vlan 11-13,21-23 root primary
SW-A(config)#vlan 21
SW-A(config-vlan)#name Marketing
SW-A(config-vlan)#exit
SW-A(config)#vlan 22
SW-A(config-vlan)#name Sales
SW-A(config-vlan)#exit
SW-A(config)#vlan 23
SW-A(config-vlan)#name Engineering
SW-A(config-vlan)#exit
SW-A(config)#interface range Fa0/3 – 4
SW-A(config-if-range)#no switchport mode access
SW-A(config-if-range)#no switchport access vlan 98 (These two commands must be
deleted to form a trunking link)
SW-A(config-if-range)#switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q (cannot issued this command on this switch, but don‘t worry coz I still got 100%)
SW-A(config-if-range)#switchport mode trunk
SW-A(config-if-range)#switchport trunk native vlan 99
SW-A(config-if-range)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 1,21-23
SW-A(config-if-range)#channel-group 1 mode active
SW-A(config-if-range)#channel-protocol lacp
SW-A(config-if-range)#no shutdown

SW-A(config-if-range)#end
SW-B (far from router)
SW-B#configure terminal
SW-B(config)#vlan 21
SW-B(config-vlan)#name Marketing
SW-B(config-vlan)#exit
SW-B(config)#vlan 22
SW-B(config-vlan)#name Sales
SW-B(config-vlan)#exit
SW-B(config)#vlan 23
SW-B(config-vlan)#name Engineering
SW-B(config-vlan)#exit
SW-B(config)#vlan 99
SW-B(config-vlan)#name TrunkNative // not necessary to name it but just name it same as SwitchA
SW-B(config-vlan)#exit
SW-B(config)#interface range Fa0/9 – 10
SW-B(config-if-range)#switchport mode access
SW-B(config-if-range)#switchport access vlan 21
SW-B(config-if-range)#spanning-tree portfast
SW-B(config-if-range)#no shutdown
SW-B(config-if-range)#exit
SW-B(config)#interface range Fa0/13 – 14
SW-B(config-if-range)#switchport mode access
SW-B(config-if-range)#switchport access vlan 22
SW-B(config-if-range)#spanning-tree portfast
SW-B(config-if-range)#no shutdown
SW-B(config-if-range)#exit
SW-B(config)#interface range Fa0/15 – 16
SW-B(config-if-range)#switchport mode access
SW-B(config-if-range)#switchport access vlan 23
SW-B(config-if-range)#spanning-tree portfast
SW-B(config-if-range)#no shutdown
SW-B(config-if-range)#exit
SW-B(config)#vtp mode transparent
SW-B(config)#spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst
SW-B(config)#ip default-gateway 192.168.1.1 (you can get this IP from SW-A with command show cdp neighbour detail) // not sure about this command because the QUESTION says “No routing is to be configured on SwitchB”.
SW-B(config)#interface vlan 1
SW-B(config-if)#ip address 192.168.1.11 255.255.255.0
SW-B(config-if)#no shutdown
SW-B(config-if)#exit
SW-B(config)#interface range Fa0/3 – 4
SW-B(config-if-range)#switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q (yes I can issued this command on this switch)
SW-B(config-if-range)#switchport mode trunk
SW-B(config-if-range)#switchport trunk native vlan 99
SW-B(config-if-range)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 1,21-23
SW-B(config-if-range)#channel-group 1 mode passive //mode passive because “SwitchA controlling activation”
SW-B(config-if-range)#channel-protocol lacp
SW-B(config-if-range)#no shutdown
SW-B(config-if-range)#end

You may have to configure Interface Port-Channel on both switches. Check the configuration first, if it does not exist, use these commands:
interface port-channel1 switchport mode trunk
switchport trunk native vlan 99 //this command will prevent the “Native VLAN mismatched” error on both switches switchport trunk allowed vlan 1,21-23,99
Some notes for this sim:
+ You should check the initial status of both switches with these commands: show vtp status (transparent mode on switchA and we have to set the same mode on switchB), show spanning-tree [summary] (rapid-pvst mode on switchA and we have to set the same mode on switchB), show vlan (check the native vlan and the existence of vlan99), show etherchannel 1 port-channel and show ip int brief (check if Port-channel 1 has been created and make sure it is up), show run (to check everything again).
+ When using “int range f0/x – y” command hit space bar before and after “-“ otherwise the simulator does not accept it.
+ You must create vlan 99 for the switchB. SwitchA already have vlan 99 configured.
+ At the end, you can try to ping from SwitchB to RouterA (you can get the IP on RouterA via the show cdp neighbors detail on SwitchA), not sure if it can ping or not. If not, you can use the “ip default-gateway 192.168.1.1” on SwitchB.
+ The name of SwitchA and SwitchB can be swapped or changed so be careful to put your configuration into appropriate switch.

QUESTION 105
Lab Simulation – AAAdot1x
SWITCH.com is an IT company that has an existing enterprise network comprised of two layer 2 only switches; DSW1 and ASW1. The topology diagram indicates their layer 2 mapping. VLAN 20 is a new VLAN that will be used to provide the shipping personnel access to the server. Corporate polices do not allow layer 3 functionality to be enabled on the switches.
For security reasons, it is necessary to restrict access to VLAN 20 in the following manner:
– Users connecting to VLAN 20 via portfO/1 on ASW1 must be authenticated before they are given access to the network. Authentication is to be done via a Radius server:
– Radius server host: 172.120.40.46
– Radius key: rad123
– Authentication should be implemented as close to the host as possible.
– Devices on VLAN 20 are restricted to the subnet of 172.120.40.0/24.
– Packets from devices in the subnet of 172.120.40.0/24 should be allowed on VLAN 20.
– Packets from devices in any other address range should be dropped on VLAN 20.
– Filtering should be implemented as close to the serverfarm as possible.
The Radius server and application servers will be installed at a future date. You have been tasked with implementing the above access control as a pre-condition to installing the servers. You must use the available IOS switch features.

A. See the explanation

Correct Answer: A

1. Verification of Pre-configuration:
a. Check that the denoted vlan [vlan20] is created in both switches and ports [fa0/1 of ASW1] are assigned.
b. Take down the radius-server ip [172.120.39.46] and the key [rad123].
c. Take down the IP range [172.120.40.0/24] to be allowed the given vlan [vlan20]

2. Configure the Port based authentication on ASW1:
Enable AAA on the switch:
ASW1(config)# aaa new-model
The new-model keyword refers to the use of method lists, by which authentication methods and sources can be grouped or organized. Define the server along with its secret shared password:
ASW1(config)# radius-server host 172.120.39.46 key rad123
ASW1(config)# aaa authentication dot1x default group radius
This command causes the RADIUS server defined on the switch to be used for 802.1x authentication.
Enable 802.1x on the switch:
ASW1(config)# dot1x system-auth-control
Configure Fa0/1 to use 802.1x:
ASW1(config)# interface fastEthernet 0/1
ASW1(config-if)# switchport mode access
ASW1(config-if)# dot1x port-control auto
Notice that the word “auto” will force connected PC to authenticate through the 802.1x exchange.
ASW1(config-if)# exit
ASW1# copy running-config startup-config

3. Filter the traffic and create vlan access-map to restrict the traffic only for a range on DSW1
Define an access-list:
DSW1(config)# ip access-list standard 10 (syntax: ip access-list {standard | extended} acl-name)
DSW1(config-ext-nacl)# permit 172.120.40.0 0.0.0.255
DSW1(config-ext-nacl)# exit
Define an access-map which uses the access-list above:
DSW1(config)# vlan access-map MYACCMAP 10 (syntax: vlan access-map map_name [0-65535])
DSW1(config-access-map)# match ip address 10 (syntax: match ip address {acl_number | acl_name})
DSW1(config-access-map)# action forward
DSW1(config-access-map)# exit
DSW1(config)# vlan access-map MYACCMAP 20
DSW1(config-access-map)# action drop (drop other networks)
DSW1(config-access-map)# exit
Apply a vlan-map into a vlan:
DSW1(config)# vlan filter MYACCMAP vlan-list 20 (syntax: vlan filter mapname vlan-list list)
DSW1# copy running-config startup-config

4. Note:
It is not possible to verify the configuration in this lab. All we have do the correct configurations. Most of the exam takers report that “ copy running-config startup-config” is not working. It does not a matter.Do not try unwanted/wrong commands in the consoles. They are not real switches.

QUESTION 106
Hotspot – HSRP
Ferris Plastics, Inc. is a medium sized company, with an enterprise network (access, distribution and core switches) that provides LAN connectivity from user PCs to corporate servers. The distribution switches are configured to use HSRPto provide a high availability solution.
– DSW1 -primary device for VLAN 101 VLAN 102 andVLAN 105
– DSW2 – primary device for VLAN 103 and VLAN 104
– A failure of GigabitEthemet1/0/1 on primary device should cause the primary device to release its status as the primary device, unless GigabitEthernet1/0/1 on backup device has also failed.
Troubleshooting has identified several issues. Currently all interfaces are up. Using the running configurations and show commands, you have been asked to investigate and respond to the following QUESTION

During routine maintenance, GigabitEthernet1/0/1 on DSW1 was shut down. All other interfaces were up.
DSW2 became the active HSRP device for VLAN 101 as desired. However, after GigabitEthemet1/0/1 on DSW1 was reactivated, DSW1 did not become the active router for VLAN 101 as desired. What needs to be done to make the group for VLAN 101 function properly?

A. Enable preempt in the VLAN 101 HSRP group on DSW1.
B. Disable preempt in the VLAN 101 HSRP group on DSW2’s.
C. In the VLAN 101 HSRP group on DSW1, decrease the priority value to avaluethatis less ‘ than the priority value configured in the VLAN 101 HSRP group on DSW2.
D. Decrease the decrement value in the track command for the VLAN 101 HSRP group on U DSWTs to a values less than the value in the track command for the VLAN 101 HSRP group on DSW2.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

A is correct. All other answers is incorrect. Because Vlan101 on DS1 ( left ) disable preempt. We need enable preempt to after it reactive, it will be active device. If not this command, it never become active device.

QUESTION 107
Hotspot – HSRP
Ferris Plastics, Inc. is a medium sized company, with an enterprise network (access, distribution and core switches) that provides LAN connectivity from user PCs to corporate servers. The distribution switches are configured to use HSRPto provide a high availability solution.
– DSW1 -primary device for VLAN 101 VLAN 102 andVLAN 105
– DSW2 – primary device for VLAN 103 and VLAN 104
– A failure of GigabitEthemet1/0/1 on primary device should cause the primary device to release its status as the primary device, unless GigabitEthernet1/0/1 on backup device has also failed.
Troubleshooting has identified several issues. Currently all interfaces are up. Using the running configurations and show commands, you have been asked to investigate and respond to the following QUESTION.

During routine maintenance, it became necessary to shut down the GigabitEthernet1/0/1 interface on DSW1. All other interfaces were up. During this time, DSW1 remained the active device for the VLAN 102 HSRP group. You have determined that there is an issue with the decrement value in the track command for the VLAN 102 HSRP group. What needs to be done to make the group function properly?

A. The decrement value on DSW1 should be greaterthan 5 and less than 15. 0
B. The decrement value on DSW1 should be greaterthan 9 and less than 15.
C. The decrement value on DSW1 should be greaterthan 11 and less than 19.
D. The decrement value on DSWTs should be greaterthan 190 and less than 200.
E. The decrement value on DSWTs should be greaterthan 195 and less than 205.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

Use “show run” command to show. The left Vlan102 is console1 of DS1. Priority value is 200, we should decrement value in the track command from 11 to 18. Because 200 – 11 = 189 < 190 ( priority of Vlan102 on DS2 ).

QUESTION 108
Hotspot – HSRP
Ferris Plastics, Inc. is a medium sized company, with an enterprise network (access, distribution and core switches) that provides LAN connectivity from user PCs to corporate servers. The distribution switches are configured to use HSRPto provide a high availability solution.
– DSW1 -primary device for VLAN 101 VLAN 102 andVLAN 105
– DSW2 – primary device for VLAN 103 and VLAN 104
– A failure of GigabitEthemet1/0/1 on primary device should cause the primary device to release its status as the primary device, unless GigabitEthernet1/0/1 on backup device has also failed. Troubleshooting has identified several issues. Currently all interfaces are up. Using the running configurations and show commands, you have been asked to investigate and respond to the following QUESTION

All interfaces are active. DSW2 has not become the active device for the VLAN 103 HSRP group. As related to the VLAN 103 HSRP group, what can be done to make the group function properly?

A. On DSW1, disable preempt.
B. On DSW1, decrease the priority value to a value less than 190 and greater than 150.
C. On DSW2, increase the priority value to a value greater 200 and less than 250.
D. On DSW2, increase the decrement value in the track command to a value greater than 10 and less than 50.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
From the output shown below of the HSRP status of DSW2, we see that the active router has a priority of 200, while the local priority is 190. We need to increase the priority of DSW2 to greater than 200, but it should be less than 250 so that if the gig 1/0/1 interface goes down, DSW1 will become active. DSW2 is configured to decrement the priority by 50 if this interface goes down, so the correct answer is to increase the priority to more than 200, but less than 250.

QUESTION 109
Hotspot – HSRP
Ferris Plastics, Inc. is a medium sized company, with an enterprise network (access, distribution and core switches) that provides LAN connectivity from user PCs to corporate servers. The distribution switches are configured to use HSRPto provide a high availability solution.
– DSW1 -primary device for VLAN 101 VLAN 102 andVLAN 105
– DSW2 – primary device for VLAN 103 and VLAN 104
– A failure of GigabitEthemet1/0/1 on primary device should cause the primary
device to release its status as the primary device, unless GigabitEthernet1/0/1 on backup device has also failed.
Troubleshooting has identified several issues. Currently all interfaces are up. Using the running configurations and show commands, you have been asked to investigate and respond to the following

During routine maintenance, it became necessary to shut down the GigabitEthernet1/0/1 interface on DSW1 and DSW2. All other interfaces were up. During this time, DSW1 became the active router for the VLAN 104HSRP group. As related to the VLAN 104HSRP group, what can to be done to make the group function properly?

A. On DSW1, disable preempt.
B. On DSW2, decrease the priority value to a value less than 150.
C. On DSW1, increase the decrement value in the track command to a value greater than 6.
D. On DSW1, decrease the decrement value in the track command to a value less than 1.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

We should NOT disable preempt on DS1. By do that, you will make Vlan104’s HSRP group fail function.
Example: if we are disable preempt on DS1. It can not become active device when G1/0/1 on DS2 fail. Inthis QUESTION, G0/1/0 on DS1 & DS2 is shutdown. Vlan104 (left) : 150 -1 = 149. Vlan104 (right) : 200 -155 = 145. Result is priority 149 > 145 ( Vlan104 on DS1 is active). If increase the decrement in the track value to a value greater than 6 ( > or = 6). Vlan104 (left) : 150 -6 = 144. Result is priority 144 < 145 ( vlan104 on DS2 is active).

QUESTION 110
Hotspot – HSRP
Ferris Plastics, Inc. is a medium sized company, with an enterprise network (access, distribution and core switches) that provides LAN connectivity from user PCs to corporate servers. The distribution switches are configured to use HSRPto provide a high availability solution.
– DSW1 -primary device for VLAN 101 VLAN 102 andVLAN 105
– DSW2 – primary device for VLAN 103 and VLAN 104
– A failure of GigabitEthemet1/0/1 on primary device should cause the primary device to release its status as the primary device, unless GigabitEthernet1/0/1 on backup device has also failed.
Troubleshooting has identified several issues. Currently all interfaces are up. Using the running configurations and show commands, you have been asked to investigate and respond to the following QUESTION.

What is the priority value of the VLAN 105 HSRP group on DSW2?

A. 50
B. 100
C. 150
D. 200

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
Use “show stantby brieft” command on console2. Very easy to see priority of Vlan105 is 100

QUESTION 111
Hotspot – HSRP
Ferris Plastics, Inc. is a medium sized company, with an enterprise network (access, distribution and core switches) that provides LAN connectivity from user PCs to corporate servers. The distribution switches are configured to use HSRPto provide a high availability solution.
– DSW1 -primary device for VLAN 101 VLAN 102 andVLAN 105
– DSW2 – primary device for VLAN 103 and VLAN 104
– A failure of GigabitEthemet1/0/1 on primary device should cause the primary device to release its status as the primary device, unless GigabitEthernet1/0/1 on backup device has also failed.
Troubleshooting has identified several issues. Currently all interfaces are up. Using the running configurations and show commands, you have been asked to investigate and respond to the following

QUESTION.

If GigabitEthemet1/0/1 on DSW2 is shutdown, what will be the resulting priority value of the VLAN 105 HSRP group on router DSW2?

A. 90
B. 100
C. 150
D. 200

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
As seen below, the current priority for VLAN 105 is 100, and the tracking feature for Gig 1/0/0 is enabled which will decrement the priority by 10 if this interface goes down for a priority value of 90.

QUESTION 112
Lab Simulation – MLS and EIGRP
You have been tasked with configuring multilayer SwitchC, which has a partial configuration and has been attached to RouterC as shown in the topology diagram.
You need to configure SwitchC so that Hosts H1 and H2 can successfully ping the server S1. Also
SwitchC needs to be able to ping server S1.
Due to administrative restrictions and requirements you should not add/delete vlans or create trunk links.
Company policies forbid the use of static or default routing. All routes must be learned via EIGRP 65010 routing protocol.
You do not have access to RouteC. RouterC is correctly configured. No trunking has been configured on RouterC.
Routed interfaces should use the lowest host on a subnet when possible. The following subnets are available to implement this solution:
– 10.10.10.0/24
– 190.200.250.32/27
– 190.200.250.64/27
Hosts H1 and H2 are configured with the correct IP address and default gateway.
SwitchC uses Cisco as the enable password.
Routing must only be enabled for the specific subnets shown in the diagram.
Note: Due to administrative restrictions and requirements you should not add or delete VLANs, changes
VLAN port assignments or create trunks. Company policies forbid the use of static or default routing. All routes must be learned via the EIGRP routing protocol.

A. See the explanation

Correct Answer: A

In real life, there are two ways to configure interVLAN routing in this case:
+ Use RouterC as a “router on a stick” and SwitchC as a pure Layer2 switch. Trunking must be established between RouterC and SwitchC.
+ Only use SwitchC for interVLAN routing without using RouterC, SwitchC should be configured as a Layer
3 switch (which supports ip routing function as a router). No trunking requires.
The QUESTION clearly states “No trunking has been configured on RouterC” so RouterC does not contribute to interVLAN routing of hosts H1 & H2 -> SwitchC must be configured as a Layer 3 switch with SVIs for interVLAN routing. We should check the default gateways on H1 & H2. Click on H1 and H2 and type the “ipconfig” command to get their default gateways.
C:\>ipconfig
We will get the default gateways as follows:
Host1:
+ Default gateway: 190.200.250.33
Host2:
+ Default gateway: 190.200.250.65
Now we have enough information to configure SwitchC (notice the EIGRP AS in this case is 650)
Note: VLAN2 and VLAN3 were created and gi0/10, gi0/11 interfaces were configured as access ports so we don’t need to configure them in this sim.
SwitchC# configure terminal
SwitchC(config)# int gi0/1
SwitchC(config-if)#no switchport -> without using this command, the simulator does not let you
assign IP address on Gi0/1 interface.
SwitchC(config-if)# ip address 10.10.10.2 255.255.255.0 ->RouterC has used IP
10.10.10.1 so this is the lowest usable IP address.
SwitchC(config-if)# no shutdown
SwitchC(config-if)# exit
SwitchC(config)# int vlan 2
SwitchC(config-if)# ip address 190.200.250.33 255.255.255.224
SwitchC(config-if)# no shutdown
SwitchC(config-if)# int vlan 3
SwitchC(config-if)# ip address 190.200.250.65 255.255.255.224
SwitchC(config-if)# no shutdown
SwitchC(config-if)#exit
SwitchC(config)# ip routing (Notice: MLS will not work without this command)
SwitchC(config)# router eigrp 650
SwitchC(config-router)# network 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.255
SwitchC(config-router)# network 190.200.250.32 0.0.0.31
SwitchC(config-router)# network 190.200.250.64 0.0.0.31

NOTE: THE ROUTER IS CORRECTLY CONFIGURED, so you will not miss within it in the exam , also don’t modify/delete any port just do the above configuration. Also some reports said the “no autosummary” command can’t be used in the simulator, in fact it is not necessary because the network 190.200.0.0/16 is not used anywhere else in this topology.
In order to complete the lab , you should expect the ping to SERVER to succeed from the MLS , and from the PCs as well.
Also make sure you use the correct EIGRP AS number (in the configuration above it is 650 but it will change when you take the exam) but we are not allowed to access RouterC so the only way to find out the EIGRP AS is to look at the exhibit above. If you use wrong AS number, no neighbor relationship is formed between RouterC and SwitchC.
In fact, we are pretty sure instead of using two commands “network 190.200.250.32 0.0.0.31” and “network 190.200.250.64 0.0.0.31” we can use one simple command “network 190.200.0.0” because it is the nature of distance vector routing protocol like EIGRP: only major networks need to be advertised; even without “no auto-summary” command the network still works correctly. But in the exam the sim is just a flash based simulator so we should use two above commands, just for sure. But after finishing the configuration, we can use “show run” command to verify, only the summarized network 190.200.0.0 is shown.

QUESTION 113
Your customer has asked you to come in and verify the operation of routers R1 and R2 which are configured to use HSRP. They have QUESTIONs about how these two devices will perform in the event of a device failure.

What percentage of the outgoing traffic from the 172.16.10.0/24 subnet is being forwarded through R1?

A. R1-0%
B. R1-50 %, R2-50%
C. R2-100%
D. R1-100%

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
Based on the following output, we see that R1 is the active standby router for the Ethernet 0/0 link, so all outgoing traffic will be forwarded to R1.

QUESTION 114
Your customer has asked you to come in and verify the operation of routers R1 and R2 which are configured to use HSRP. They have QUESTIONs about how these two devices will perform in the event of a device failure

Refer to the exhibit. If router R1 interface Etherne0/0 goes down and recovers, which of the statement regarding HSRP priority is true?

A. The interface will have the priority decremented by 40 for HSRP group 1.
B. The interface will have the priority decremented by 60 for HSRP group 1
C. The interface will have its current priority incremented by 40 for HSRP group 1
D. The interface will have its current priority incremented by 60 for HSRP group 1
E. The interface will default to the a priority of 100 for HSRP group 1

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Here is the HSRP configuration seen on R1:

Here, when the Ethernet 0/0 interface goes down, the standby 1 track decrement command will lower the priority from 130 to 90. However, when it comes back up, it will then increment it by 40 back to 130 for HSRP group 1.

QUESTION 115
Your customer has asked you to come in and verify the operation of routers R1 and R2 which are configured to use HSRP. They have QUESTIONs about how these two devices will perform in the event of a device failure

What issue is causing Router R1 and R2 to both be displayed as the HSRP active router for group 2?

A. The HSRP group number mismatch
B. The HSRP group authentication is misconfigured
C. The HSRP Hello packets are blocked
D. The HSRP timers mismatch
E. The HSRP group priorities are different

Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Based on the configuration output, we see that authentication is configured on R2, but not on R1:

This can be further verified by issuing the “show standby” command on each router

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QUESTION 116
Your customer has asked you to come in and verify the operation of routers R1 and R2 which are configured to use HSRP. They have QUESTIONs about how these two devices will perform in the event of a device failure.

What is the virtual mac-address of HSRP group 1?

A. 0000.0c07.ac02
B. 4000.0000.0010
C. 0000.0c07.ac01
D. 4000.0000.ac01
E. 4000.0000.ac02
F. 0000.0c07.0010

Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Issuing the “show standby” command on either router shows us that the virtual MAC used by HSRP group 1 is 4000.0000.0010.

QUESTION 117
You have been asked to install and configure a new switch in a customer network. Use the console access to the existing and new switches to configure and verify correct device configuration.

You are connecting the New_Switch to the LAN topology; the switch has been partially configured and you need to complete the rest of configuration to enable PC1 communication with PC2. Which of the configuration is correct?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
Within any VTP, the VTP domain name must match. So, step one is to find the correct VTP name on the other switches. Logging in to SW1 and using the “show vtp status” command we see this:

So we know that the VTP domain must be CCNP. This leaves only choice D and E. We also see from the topology diagram that eth 0/0 of the new switch connects to a PC in VLNA 100, so we know that this port must be an access port in VLAN 100, leaving only choice D as correct. Note that the VTP versions supported in this network are 1, 2, 3 so either VTP version 2 or 3 can be configured on the new switch.

QUESTION 118
You have been asked to install and configure a new switch in a customer network. Use the console access to the existing and new switches to configure and verify correct device configuration

Refer to the configuration. For which configured VLAN are untagged frames sent over trunk between SW1 and SW2?

A. VLAN1
B. VLAN 99
C. VLAN 999
D. VLAN 40
E. VLAN 50
F. VLAN 200
G. VLAN 300

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
The native VLAN is used for untagged frames sent along a trunk. By issuing the “show interface trunk” command on SW1 and SW2 we see the native VLAN is 99.

QUESTION 119
You have been asked to install and configure a new switch in a customer network. Use the console access to the existing and new switches to configure and verify correct device configuration.

You are adding new VLANs. VLAN500 and VLAN600 to the topology in such way that you need to configure SW1 as primary root for VLAN 500 and secondary for VLAN 600 and SW2 as primary root for VLAN 600 and secondary for VLAN 500. Which configuration step is valid?

A. Configure VLAN 500 & VLAN 600 on both SW1 & SW2
B. Configure VLAN 500 and VLAN 600 on SW1 only
C. Configure VLAN 500 and VLAN 600 on SW2 only
D. Configure VLAN 500 and VLAN 600 on SW1 ,SW2 and SW4
E. On SW2; configure vtp mode as off and configure VLAN 500 and VLAN 600; configure back to vtp server mode.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
By issuing the “show vtp status command on SW2, SW2, and SW4 we see that both SW1 and SW2 are operating in VTP server mode, but SW4 is a client, so we will need to add both VLANs to SW1 and SW2.

QUESTION 120
You have been asked to install and configure a new switch in a customer network. Use the console access to the existing and new switches to configure and verify correct device configuration.

Examine the VTP configuration. You are required to configure private VLANs for a new server deployment connecting to the SW4 switch. Which of the following configuration steps will allow creating private VLANs?

A. Disable VTP pruning on SW1 only
B. Disable VTP pruning on SW2 only
C. Disable VTP pruning on SW4 only
D. Disable VTP pruning on SW2, SW4 and New_Switch
E. Disable VTP pruning on New_Switch and SW4 only.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
To create private VLANs, you will need to only disable pruning on the switch that contains the private VLANs. In this case, only SW4 will connect to servers in a private VLAN.

QUESTION 121
A switch has been configured with the vlan dot1q tag native command.
Which statement describes what the switch does with untagged frames that it receive?

A. Untagged frames are forwarded via the default VLAN
B. It drops the untagged frames
C. The trunked port is put in err-disable state
D. Untagged frames are forwarded via the native VLAN

Correct Answer: D

Exam B

QUESTION 1
What is the maximum number of switches that can be stacked using Cisco StackWise?

A. 4
B. 5
C. 8
D. 9
E. 10
F. 13

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
Up to 9 Cisco Catalyst switches can be stacked together to build single logical StackWise switch since Cisco IOS XE Release 3.3.0SE. Prior to Cisco IOS XE Release3.3.0SE, up to 4 Cisco Catalyst switches could be stacked together.
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/catalyst-3850-series-switches/qa_c67- 722110.html

QUESTION 2
A network engineer wants to add a new switch to an existing switch stack. Which configuration must be added to the new switch before it can be added to the switch stack?

A. No configuration must be added.
B. stack ID
C. IP address
D. VLAN information
E. VTP information

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3750x_3560x/software/release/12-2_55_se/configuration/guide/3750xscg/swstack.html

QUESTION 3
What percentage of bandwidth is reduced when a stack cable is broken?

A. 0
B. 25
C. 50
D. 75
E. 100

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:Physical Sequential Linkage The switches are physically connected sequentially, as shown in Figure 3.
A break in any one of the cables will result in the stack bandwidth being reduced to half of its full capacity.
Subsecond timing mechanisms detect traffic problems and immediately institute failover.
This mechanism restores dual path flow when the timing mechanisms detect renewed activity on the cable.
Figure 3. Cisco StackWise Technology Resilient Cabling

http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/catalyst-3750-series-switches/prod_white_paper09186a00801b096a.html

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. Which set of configurations will result in all ports on both switches successfully bundling into an EtherChannel?

A. switch1
channel-group 1 mode active
switch2
channel-group 1 mode auto

B. switch1
channel-group 1 mode desirable
switch2
channel-group 1 mode passive

C. switch1
channel-group 1 mode on
switch2
channel-group 1 mode auto

D. switch1
channel-group 1 mode desirable
switch2
channel-group 1 mode auto

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
The different etherchannel modes are described in the table below:
Mode Description active Places an interface into an active negotiating state, in which the interface starts negotiations with other interfaces by sending LACP packets. auto Places an interface into a passive negotiating state, in which the interface re-sponds to PAgP packets
it receives but does not start PAgP packet negotiation.
This setting minimizes the transmission of PAgP packets. desirable Places an interface into an active negotiating state, in which the interface starts negotiations with other interfaces by sending PAgP packets. on Forces the interface into an EtherChannel without PAgP or LACP. With the on mode, a usable
EtherChannel exists only when an interface group in the on mode is connected to another interface group in the on mode. passive Places an interface into a passive negotiating state, in which the interface re- sponds to LACP packets that it receives, but does not start LACP packet ne-gotiation. This setting minimizes the transmission of LACP packets.
Both the auto and desirable PAgP modes allow interfaces to negotiate with partner interfaces to determine if they can form an EtherChannel based on criteria such as interface speed and, for Layer 2 EtherChannels, trunking state and VLAN numbers.
Interfaces can form an EtherChannel when they are in different PAgP modes as long as the modes are compatible. For example:
An interface in the desirable mode can form an EtherChannel with another interface that is in the desirable or auto mode.
An interface in the auto mode can form an EtherChannel with another interface in the desirable mode.
An interface in the auto mode cannot form an EtherChannel with another interface that is also in the auto mode because neither interface starts PAgP negotiation.
An interface in the on mode that is added to a port channel is forced to have the same characteristics as the already existing on mode interfaces in the channel.
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3550/software/release/12-1_13_ea1/
configuration/guide/3550scg/swethchl.html

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. How can the traffic that is mirrored out the GigabitEthernet0/48 port be limited to only traffic that is received or transmitted in VLAN 10 on the GigabitEthernet0/1 port?

A. Change the configuration for GigabitEthernet0/48 so that it is a member of VLAN 10.
B. Add an access list to GigabitEthernet0/48 to filter out traffic that is not in VLAN 10.
C. Apply the monitor session filter globally to allow only traffic from VLAN 10.
D. Change the monitor session source to VLAN 10 instead of the physical interface.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
To start a new flow-based SPAN (FSPAN) session or flow-based RSPAN (FRSPAN) source or destination session, or to limit (filter) SPAN source traffic to specific VLANs, use the monitor session filter global configuration command.
Usage Guidelines
You can set a combined maximum of two local SPAN sessions and RSPAN source sessions.
You can have a total of 66 SPAN and RSPAN sessions on a switch or switch stack.
You can monitor traffic on a single VLAN or on a series or range of ports or VLANs.
You select a series or range of VLANs by using the [ , | -] options.
If you specify a series of VLANs, you must enter a space before and after the comma. If you specify a range of VLANs, you must enter a space before and after the hyphen ( -). VLAN filtering refers to analyzing network traffic on a selected set of VLANs on trunk source ports. By default, all VLANs are monitored on trunk source ports.
You can use the monitor session session_number filter vlan vlan-id command to limit SPAN traffic on trunk source ports to only the specified VLANs.
VLAN monitoring and VLAN filtering are mutually exclusive.
If a VLAN is a source, VLAN filtering cannot be enabled. If VLAN filtering is configured, a VLAN cannot become a source.
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3850/software/release/3se/
network_management command_reference/b_nm_3se_3850_cr/
b_nm_3se_3850_cr_chapter_010.html#wp3 875419997

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer wants to analyze all incoming and outgoing packets for an interface that is connected to an access switch. Which three items must be configured to mirror traffic to a packet sniffer that is connected to the distribution switch? (Choose three)

A. A monitor session on the distribution switch with a physical interface as the source and the remote SPAN VLAN as the destination
B. A remote SPAN VLAN on the distribution and access layer switch
C. A monitor session on the access switch with a physical interface source and the remote SPAN VLAN as the destination
D. A monitor session on the distribution switch with a remote SPAN VLAN as the source and physical interface as the destination
E. A monitor session on the access switch with a remote SPAN VLAN source and the physical interface as the destination
F. A monitor session on the distribution switch with a physical interface as the source and a physical interface as the destination

Correct Answer: BCD

Explanation:
You can analyze network traffic passing through ports or VLANs by using SPAN or RSPAN to send a copy of the traffic to another port on the switch or on another switch that has been connected to a network analyzer or other monitoring or security device. SPAN copies (or mirrors) traffic received or sent (or both) on source ports or source VLANs to a destination port for analysis. RSPAN supports source ports, source
VLANs, and destination ports on different switches (or different switch stacks), enabling remote monitoring of multiple switches across your network. The traffic for each RSPAN session is carried over a userspecified RSPAN VLAN that is dedicated for that RSPAN session in all participating switches.
The RSPAN traffic from the source ports or VLANs is copied into the RSPAN VLAN and forwarded over trunk ports carrying the RSPAN VLAN to a destination session monitoring the RSPAN VLAN. Each RSPAN source switch must have either ports or VLANs as RSPAN sources. The destination is always a physical port.
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3750x_3560x/software/release/12-2_55_se/configuration/guide/3750xscg/swspan.html

QUESTION 7
After an EtherChannel is configured between two Cisco switches, interface port channel 1 is in the down/down state. Switch A is configured with channel-group 1 mode active, while Switch B is configured with
channel-group 1 mode desirable. Why is the EtherChannel bundle not working?

A. The switches are using mismatched EtherChannel negotiation modes.
B. The switch ports are not configured in trunking mode.
C. LACP priority must be configured on both switches.
D. The channel group identifier must be different for Switch A and Switch B.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which feature must be enabled to eliminate the broadcasting of all unknown traffic to switches that are not participating in the specific VLAN?

A. VTP pruning
B. port-security
C. storm control
D. bpdguard

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit. The users in an engineering department that connect to the same access switch cannot access the network. The network engineer found that the engineering VLAN is missing from the database. Which action resolves this problem?

A. Disable VTP pruning and disable 802.1q.
B. Update the VTP revision number.
C. Change VTP mode to server and enable 802.1q.
D. Enable VTP pruning and disable 802.1q.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
A network engineer wants to ensure Layer 2 isolation of customer traffic using a private VLAN. Which configuration must be made before the private VLAN is configured?

A. Disable VTP and manually assign VLANs.
B. Ensure all switches are configured as VTP server mode.
C. Configure VTP Transparent Mode.
D. Enable VTP version 3.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit. The network switches for two companies have been connected and manually configured for the required VLANs, but users in company A are not able to access network resources in company B when DTP is enabled. Which action resolves this problem?

A. Delete vlan.dat and ensure that the switch with lowest MAC address is the VTP server.
B. Disable DTP and document the VTP domain mismatch.
C. Manually force trunking with switchport mode trunk on both switches.
D. Enable the company B switch with the vtp mode server command.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
A network engineer must implement Ethernet links that are capable of transporting frames and IP traffic for different broadcast domains that are mutually isolated. Consider that this is a multivendor environment. Which Cisco IOS switching feature can be used to achieve the task?

A. PPP encapsulation with a virtual template
B. Link Aggregation Protocol at the access layer
C. dot1q VLAN trunking
D. Inter-Switch Link

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Which statement about using native VLANs to carry untagged frames is true?

A. Cisco Discovery Protocol version 2 carries native VLAN information, but version 1 does not.
B. Cisco Discovery Protocol version 1 carries native VLAN information, but version 2 does not.
C. Cisco Discovery Protocol version 1 and version 2 carry native VLAN information.
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol version 3 carries native VLAN information, but versions 1 and 2 do not.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit. A multilayer switch has been configured to send and receive encapsulated and tagged frames. VLAN 2013 on the multilayer switch is configured as the native VLAN. Which option is the cause of the spanning-tree error?

A. VLAN spanning-tree in SW-2 is configured.
B. spanning-tree bpdu-filter is enabled.
C. 802.1q trunks are on both sides, both with native VLAN mismatch.
D. VLAN ID 1 should not be used for management traffic because its unsafe.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
A network engineer must improve bandwidth and resource utilization on the switches by stopping the inefficient flooding of frames on trunk ports where the frames are not needed. Which Cisco IOS feature can be used to achieve this task?

A. VTP pruning
B. access list
C. switchport trunk allowed VLAN
D. VLAN access-map

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
Cisco advocates the benefits of pruning VLANs in order to reduce unnecessary frame flooding.The“vtp pruning”command prunes VLANs automatically, which stops the inefficient flooding of frames where they are not needed.
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/switches/catalyst-6500-series-switches/24330-185.html

QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit. What is the result of the configuration?

A. The EtherChannels would not form because the load-balancing method must match on the devices.
B. The EtherChannels would form and function properly even though the load-balancing and EtherChannel modes do not match.
C. The EtherChannels would form, but network loops would occur because the load- balancing methods do not match.
D. The EtherChannels would form and both devices would use the dst-ip load-balancing method because Switch1 is configured with EtherChannel mode active.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
An etherchannel will form if one end is active and the other is passive.
Load balancing can only be configured globally.
As a result, all channels (manually configured, PagP, or LACP) use the same load-balancing.
This is true for the switch globally, although each switch involved in the etherchannel can have non matching parameters for load balancing.
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst4500/12-2/54sg/configuration/guide/config/
channel.html#wp1020804

QUESTION 17
A network engineer tries to configure storm control on an EtherChannel bundle. What is the result of the configuration?

A. The storm control settings will appear on the EtherChannel, but not on the associated physical ports.
B. The configuration will be rejected because storm control is not supported for EtherChannel.
C. The storm control configuration will be accepted, but will only be present on the physical interfaces.
D. The settings will be applied to the EtherChannel bundle and all associated physical interfaces.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
After you configure an EtherChannel, any configuration that you apply to the port-channel interface affects the EtherChannel; any configuration that you apply to the physical interfaces affects only the interface where you apply the configuration. Storm Control is an exception to this rule. For example, you cannot configure Storm Control on some of the members of an EtherChannel; Storm Control must be configured on all or none of the ports.
If you configure Storm Control on only some of the ports, those ports will be dropped from the EtherChannel interface (put in suspended state). Therefore, you should configure Storm Control at the EtherChannel Interface level, and not at the physical interface level.

QUESTION 18
A Cisco Catalyst switch that is prone to reboots continues to rebuild the DHCP snooping database. What is the solution to avoid the snooping database from being rebuilt after every device reboot?

A. A DHCP snooping database agent should be configured.
B. Enable DHCP snooping for all VLANs that are associated with the switch.
C. Disable Option 82 for DHCP data insertion.
D. Use IP Source Guard to protect the DHCP binding table entries from being lost upon rebooting.
E. Apply ip dhcp snooping trust on all interfaces with dynamic addresses.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Which portion of AAA looks at what a user has access to?

A. authorization
B. authentication
C. accounting
D. auditing

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Which command creates a login authentication method named “login” that will primarily use RADIUS and fail over to the local user database?

A. (config)# aaa authentication login default radius local
B. (config)# aaa authentication login login radius local
C. (config)# aaa authentication login default local radius
D. (config)# aaa authentication login radius local

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
What is the function of NSF?

A. forward traffic simultaneously using both supervisors
B. forward traffic based on Cisco Express Forwarding
C. provide automatic failover to back up supervisor in VSS mode
D. provide nonstop forwarding in the event of failure of one of the member supervisors

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
VSS is network system virtualization technology that pools multiple Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Switches into one virtual switch, increasing operational efficiency, boosting nonstop communications, and scaling system bandwidth capacity to 1.4 Tbps. Switches would operate as a single logical virtual switch called a virtual switching system 1440 (VSS1440). VSS formed by two Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Switches with the Virtual Switching Supervisor 720-10GE. In a VSS, the data plane and switch fabric with capacity of 720 Gbps of supervisor engine in each chassis are active at the same time on both chassis, combining for an active 1400-Gbps switching capacity per VSS. Only one of the virtual switch members has the active control plane. Both chassis are kept in sync with the inter-chassis Stateful Switchover (SSO) mechanism along with Nonstop Forwarding (NSF) to provide nonstop communication even in the event of failure of one of the member supervisor engines or chassis.

QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about SW1 are true?(Choose two)

A. InterfaceGi5/1 is using a Cisco proprietary trunking protocol
B. On Interface Gi5/1, all untagged traffic is tagged with VLAN 113
C. The device is configured with the default MST region
D. Interface Gi5/1 is using an industry-standard trunking protocol
E. Interface Gi6/2 is the root port for VLAN 36
F. On interface Gi6/2, all untagged traffic is tagged with VLAN 600

Correct Answer: DF

QUESTION 23
Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands ensure that DSW1 becomes root bridge for VLAN 10 and 20? (Choose two)

A. spanning-tree mstp 1 priority 0
B. spanning-tree mst1root primary
C. spanning-tree mst vlan 10,20 priority root
D. spanning-tree mst1priority 4096
E. spanning-tree mst1priority 1
F. spanning-tree mstp vlan 10,20 root primary

Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 24
Which configuration command ties the router hot standby priority to the availability of its interfaces?

A. standby group
B. standby priority
C. backup interface
D. standby track

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 25
What is the default HSRP priority?

A. 50
B. 100
C. 120
D. 1024

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26
A server with a statically assigned IP address is attached to a switch that is provisioned for DHCP snooping. For more protection against malicious attacks, the network team is considering enabling dynamic ARP inspection alongside DHCP snooping. Which solution ensures that the server maintains network reachability in the future?

A. Disable DHCP snooping information option.
B. Configure a static DHCP snooping binding entry on the switch.
C. Trust the interface that is connected to the server with the ip dhcp snooping trust command.
D. Verify the source MAC address of all untrusted interfaces with ip dhcp snooping verify mac- address command.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
DHCP snooping and IP Source Guard have been configured on a switch that connects to several client workstations. The IP address of one of the workstations does not match any entries found in the DHCP binding database. Which statement describes the outcome of this scenario?

A. Packets from the workstation will be rate limited according to the default values set on the switch.
B. The interface that is connected to the workstation in QUESTION will be put into the errdisabled state.
C. Traffic will pass accordingly after the new IP address is populated into the binding database.
D. The packets originating from the workstation are assumed to be spoofed and will be discarded.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
Which technique allows specific VLANs to be strictly permitted by the administrator?

A. VTP pruning
B. transparent bridging
C. trunk-allowed VLANs
D. VLAN access-list
E. L2P tunneling

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
By default, a trunk port sends traffic to and receives traffic from all VLANs. All VLAN IDs, 1 to 4094, are allowed on each trunk. However, you can remove VLANs from the allowed list, preventing traffic from those VLANs from passing over the trunk. To restrict the traffic a trunk carries, use the “switchport trunk allowed vlan remove vlan-list” interface configuration command to remove specific VLANs from the allowed list.

QUESTION 29
For security reasons, the IT manager has prohibited users from dynamically establishing trunks with their associated upstream switch. Which two actions can prevent interface trunking? (Choose two)

A. Configure trunk and access interfaces manually.
B. Disable DTP on a per interface basis.
C. Apply BPDU guard and BPDU filter.
D. Enable switchport block on access ports.

Correct Answer: AB

Explanation:
The Dynamic Trunking Protocol (DTP) is used to negotiate forming a trunk between two Cisco devices.
DTP causes increased traffic, and is enabled by default, but may be disabled. To disable DTP, configure “switchport nonegotiate.” This prevents the interface from generating DTP frames.
You can use this command only when the interface switchport mode is access or trunk. You must manually configure the neighboring interface as a trunk interface to establish a trunk link, otherwise the link will be a non-trunking link.

QUESTION 30
Which two protocols can be automatically negotiated between switches for trunking? (Choose two)

A. PPP
B. DTP
C. ISL
D. HDLC
E. DLCI
F. DOT1Q

Correct Answer: CF

Explanation:
Switches such as the Catalyst 3550 that are capable of either 802.1Q or ISL trunking encapsulation, the switchport trunk encapsulation [dot1q | isl | negotiate] interface command must be used prior to the switchport mode trunk command.

QUESTION 31
A network is running VTPv2. After verifying all VTP settings, the network engineer notices that the new switch is not receiving the list of VLANs from the server. Which action resolves this problem?

A. Reload the new switch.
B. Restart the VTP process on the new switch.
C. Reload the VTP server.
D. Verify connected trunk ports.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
VTP should never need to have the switch reloaded or the VTP process to restart in order for it to work. The first thing that should be done is to verify that the trunk ports are connected and up.

QUESTION 32
After configuring new data VLANs 1020 through 1030 on the VTP server, a network engineer notices that none of the VTP clients are receiving the updates. What is the problem?

A. The VTP server must be reloaded.
B. The VTP version number must be set to version 3.
C. After each update to the VTP server, it takes up to 4 hours propagate.
D. VTP must be stopped and restarted on the server.
E. Another switch in the domain has a higher revision number than the server.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
VTP version 3 supports these features that are not supported in version 1 or version 2:
Enhanced authentication–You can configure the authentication as hidden or secret. When hidden, the secret key from the password string is saved in the VLAN database file, but it does not appear in plain text in the configuration. Instead, the key associated with the password is saved in hexadecimal format in the running configuration.
You must reenter the password if you enter a takeover command in the domain.
When you enter the secret keyword, you can directly configure the password secret key.
Support for extended range VLAN (VLANs 1006 to 4094) database propagation.
VTP versions 1 and 2 propagate only VLANs 1 to 1005. If extended VLANs are configured, you cannot convert from VTP version 3 to version 1 or 2.

QUESTION 33
A network engineer is extending a LAN segment between two geographically separated data centers. Which enhancement to a spanning-tree design prevents unnecessary traffic from crossing the extended LAN segment?

A. Modify the spanning-tree priorities to dictate the traffic flow.
B. Create a Layer 3 transit VLAN to segment the traffic between the sites.
C. Use VTP pruning on the trunk interfaces.
D. Configure manual trunk pruning between the two locations.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Pruning unnecessary VLANs from the trunk can be performed with one of two methods:
• Manual pruning of the unnecessary VLAN on the trunk – This is the best method, and it avoids the use of the spanning tree. Instead, the method runs the pruned VLAN on trunks.
• VTP pruning – Avoid this method if the goal is to reduce the number of STP instances.
VTP-pruned VLANs on a trunk are still part of the spanning tree. Therefore, VTP-pruned VLANs do not reduce the number of spanning tree port instances.
Since the QUESTION asked for the choice that is an enhancement to the STP design, VTP pruning is the best choice.
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk689/technologies_tech_note09186a0080890613.shtml

QUESTION 34
The network manager has requested that several new VLANs (VLAN 10, 20, and 30) are allowed to traverse the switch trunk interface. After the command switchport trunk allowed vlan 10,20,30 is issued, all other existing VLANs no longer pass traffic over the trunk. What is the root cause of the problem?

A. The command effectively removed all other working VLANs and replaced them with the new VLANs.
B. VTP pruning removed all unused VLANs.
C. ISL was unable to encapsulate more than the already permitted VLANs across the trunk.
D. Allowing additional VLANs across the trunk introduced a loop in the network.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
The “switchport trunk allowed vlan” command will only allow the specified VLANs, and overwrite any others that were previously defined. You would also need to explicitly allow the other working VLANs to this configuration command, or use the “issue the switchport trunk allowed vlan add vlan-list” command instead to add these 3 VLANS to the other defined allowed VLANs.

QUESTION 35
When you design a switched network using VTPv2, how many VLANs can be used to carry user traffic?

A. 1000
B. 1001
C. 1024
D. 2048
E. 4095
F. 4096

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
VTP versions 1 and 2 Supports normal VLAN numbers (1-1001).
Only VTP version 3 supports extended VLANs (1-4095).

QUESTION 36
What does the command vlan dot1q tag native accomplish when configured under global configuration?

A. All frames within the native VLAN are tagged, except when the native VLAN is set to 1.
B. It allows control traffic to pass using the non-default VLAN.
C. It removes the 4-byte dot1q tag from every frame that traverses the trunk interface(s).
D. Control traffic is tagged.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
The “vlan dot1q tag native” will tag all untagged frames, including control traffic, with the defined native VLAN.

QUESTION 37
Which private VLAN access port belongs to the primary VLAN and can communicate with all interfaces, including the community and isolated host ports?

A. promiscuous port
B. isolated port
C. community port
D. trunk port

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 38
Which private VLAN can have only one VLAN and be a secondary VLAN that carries unidirectional traffic upstream from the hosts toward the promiscuous ports and the gateway?

A. isolated VLAN
B. primary VLAN
C. community VLAN
D. promiscuous VLAN

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 39
Which database is used to determine the validity of an ARP packet based on a valid IP-to- MAC address binding?

A. DHCP snooping database
B. dynamic ARP database
C. dynamic routing database
D. static ARP database

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 40
When IP Source Guard with source IP filtering is enabled on an interface, which feature must be enabled on the access VLAN for that interface?

A. DHCP snooping
B. storm control
C. spanning-tree portfast
D. private VLAN

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 41
Which switch feature prevents traffic on a LAN from being overwhelmed by continuous multicast or broadcast traffic?

A. storm control
B. port security
C. VTP pruning
D. VLAN trunking

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 42
Which command would a network engineer apply to error-disable a switchport when a packet- storm is detected?

A. router(config-if)#storm-control action shutdown
B. router(config-if)#storm-control action trap
C. router(config-if)#storm-control action error
D. router(config-if)#storm-control action enable

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 43
A network engineer configures port security and 802.1x on the same interface. Which option describes what this configuration allows?

A. It allows port security to secure the MAC address that 802.1x authenticates.
B. It allows port security to secure the IP address that 802.1x authenticates.
C. It allows 802.1x to secure the MAC address that port security authenticates.
D. It allows 802.1x to secure the IP address that port security authenticates.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 44
Which feature describes MAC addresses that are dynamically learned or manually configured, stored in the address table, and added to the running configuration?

A. sticky
B. dynamic
C. static
D. secure

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 45
On which interface can port security be configured?

A. static trunk ports
B. destination port for SPAN
C. EtherChannel port group
D. dynamic access point

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 46
Based on the show spanning-tree vlan 200 output shown in the exhibit, which two statements about the STP process for VLAN 200 are true? (Choose two)

A. BPDUs will be sent out every two seconds.
B. The time spent in the listening state will be 30 seconds.
C. The time spent in the learning state will be 15 seconds.
D. The maximum length of time that the BPDU information will be saved is 30 seconds.
E. This switch is the root bridge for VLAN 200.
F. BPDUs will be sent out every 10 seconds.

Correct Answer: BF

QUESTION 47
Which three statements are correct with regard to the IEEE 802.1Q standard? (Choose three)

A. The IEEE 802.1Q frame format adds a 4 byte field to a Ethernet frame
B. The packet is encapsulated with a 26 byte header and a 4 byte FCS
C. The protocol uses point-to-multipoint connectivity
D. The protocol uses point-to-point connectivity
E. The IEEE 802.1Q frame uses multicast destination of 0x01-00-0c-00-00
F. The IEEE 802.1Q frame retains the original MAC destination address

Correct Answer: ADF

QUESTION 48
Refer to the exhibit. Based upon the output of show vlan on switch CAT2, what can we conclude about interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14?

A. That interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are in VLAN 1
B. That interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are down
C. That interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are trunk interfaces
D. That interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 have a domain mismatch with another switch
E. That interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 have a duplex mismatch with another switch

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 49
VLAN maps have been configured on switch R1. Which of the following actions are taken in a VLAN map that does not contain a match clause?

A. Implicit deny feature at end of list.
B. Implicit deny feature at start of list.
C. Implicit forward feature at end of list
D. Implicit forward feature at start of list.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 50
Given the configuration on a switch interface, what happens when a host with the MAC address of 0003.0003.0003 is directly connected to the switch port?

switchport mode access
switchport port-security
switchport port-security maximum 2
switchport port-security mac-address 0002.0002.0002
switchport port-security violation shutdown

A. The host will be allowed to connect.
B. The port will shut down.
C. The host can only connect through a hub/switch where 0002.0002.0002 is already connected.
D. The host will be refused access.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 51
Refer to the exhibit. Switch 15 is configured as the root switch for VLAN 10 but not for VLAN 20. If the STP configuration is correct, what will be true about Switch 15?

A. All ports will be in forwarding mode.
B. All ports in VLAN 10 will be in forwarding mode.
C. All ports in VLAN 10 will be in forwarding mode and all ports in VLAN 20 will be in blocking mode.
D. All ports in VLAN 10 will be in forwarding mode and all ports in VLAN 20 will be in standby mode.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 52
Which of the following HSRP router states does an active router enter when it is preempted by a higher priority router? (Select the best answer.)

A. active
B. speak
C. learn
D. listen
E. init
F. standby

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 53
Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the output of the show spanning-tree inconsistentports command, which statement about interfaces FastEthernet 0/1 and FastEthernet 0/2 is true?

A. They have been configured with the spanning-tree bpdufilter disable command.
B. They have been configured with the spanning-tree bpdufilter enable command.
C. They have been configured with the spanning-tree bpduguard disable command.
D. They have been configured with the spanning-tree bpduguard enable command.
E. They have been configured with the spanning-tree guard loop command.
F. They have been configured with the spanning-tree guard root command.

Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 54
You want to configure a switched internetwork with multiple VLANs as shown above. Which of the following commands should you issue on SwitchA for the port connected to SwitchB? (Select the best answer.)

A. switchport mode trunk
B. switchport access vlan 5
C. switchport mode access vlan 5
D. switchport trunk native vlan 5

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 55
You administer a network that uses two routers, R1 and R2, configured as an HSRP group to provide redundancy for the gateway. Router R1 is the active router and has been configured as follows:
R1#configure terminal
R1(config)#interface fa0/0
R1(config-if)#ip address 10.10.0.5 255.255.255.0
R1(config-if)#standby 1 priority 150
R1(config-if)#standby preempt delay minimum 50
R1(config-if)#standby 1 track interface fa0/2 15
R1(config-if)#standby 1 ip 10.10.0.20
Which of the following describes the effect the “standby preempt delay minimum 50” command will have on router R1? (Select the best answer.)

A. The HSRP priority for router R1 will increase to 200.
B. Router R1 will become the standby router if the priority drops below 50.
C. The HSRP priority for router R1 will decrease to 50 points when Fa0/2 goes down.
D. Router R1 will wait 50 seconds before attempting to preempt the active router.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 56
Which statement is correct about 802.1Q trunking?

A. Both switches must be in the same VTP domain.
B. The encapsulation type of both ends of the trunk does not have to match.
C. The native VLAN on both ends of the trunk must be VLAN 1.
D. 802.1Q trunking can only be configured on a Layer 2 port.
E. In 802.1Q trunking, all VLAN packets are tagged on the trunk link, except the native VLAN.

Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 57
Which of the following commands can be issued without interfering with the operation of loop guard?

A. Switch(config-if)#spanning-tree guard root
B. Switch(config-if)#spanning-tree portfast
C. Switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk
D. Switch(config-if)#switchport mode access

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 58
The following command was issued on a router that is being configured as the active HSRP router. standby ip 10.2.1.1 Which statement is true about this command?

A. This command will not work because the HSRP group information is missing
B. The HSRP MAC address will be 0000 0c07 ac00
C. The HSRP MAC address will be 0000 0c07 ac01.
D. The HSRP MAC address will be 0000.070c ad01.
E. This command will not work because the active parameter is missing

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 59
Routers R1 and R2 are configured for HSRP as shown below:
Router R1:
interface ethernet 0
ip address 20.6.2.1 255.255.255.0
standby 35 ip 20.6.2.21
standby 35 priority 100
interface ethernet 1
ip address 20.6.1.1.2 255.255.255.0
standby 34 ip 20.6.1.21
Router R2:
interface ethernet 0
ip address 20.6.2.2 255.255.255.0
standby 35 ip 20.6.2.21
interface ethernet 1
ip address 20.6.1.1.1 255.255.255.0
standby 34 ip 20.6.1.21
standby 34 priority 100
You have configured the routers R1 & R2 with HSRP. While debugging router R2 you notice very frequent HSRP group state transitions.
What is the most likely cause of this?

A. physical layer issues
B. no spanning tree loops
C. use of non-default HSRP timers
D. failure to set the command standby 35 preempt

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 60
Which two statements about the HSRP priority are true?(Choose two)

A. To assign the HSRP router priority in a standby group, the standby group-number priority priority-value global configuration command must be used.
B. The default priority of a router is zero (0).
C. The no standby priority command assigns a priority of 100 to the router.
D. Assuming that preempting has also been configured, the router with the lowest priority in an HSRP group would become the active router.
E. When two routers in an HSRP standby group are configured with identical priorities, the router with the highest configured IP address will become the active router.

Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 61
Which three statements are true of a default HSRP configuration? (Choose three)

A. The Standby hello time is 2 seconds.
B. Two HSRP groups are configured.
C. The Standby track interface priority decrement is 10.
D. The Standby hold time is 10 seconds
E. The Standby priority is 100.
F. The Standby delay is 3 seconds.

Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 62
Refer to the exhibit. What is the result of setting GLBP weighting at 105 with lower threshold 90 and upper threshold 100 on this router?

A. Only if both tracked objects are up will this router will be available as an AVF for group 1.
B. Only if the state of both tracked objects goes down will this router release its status as an AVF for group 1.
C. If both tracked objects go down and then one comes up, but the other remains down, this router will be available as an AVF for group 1.
D. This configuration is incorrect and will not have any effect on GLBP operation.
E. If the state of one tracked object goes down then this router will release its status as an AVF for group 1.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 63
Which describes the default load balacing scheme used by the Gateway Load Balancing Protocol (GLBP)?

A. Per host using a strict priority scheme
B. Per session using a round-robin scheme
C. Per session using a strict priority scheme
D. Per GLBP group using a strict priority scheme
E. Per host basis using a round robin-scheme
F. Per GLBP group using a round-robin scheme

Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 64
Drag and Drop QUESTION

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 65
Drag and Drop QUESTION

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 66
Drag and Drop QUESTION

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 67
Drag and Drop QUESTION

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 68
Drag and Drop QUESTION

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 69
Drag and Drop QUESTION

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 70
Drag and Drop QUESTION
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 71
Drag and Drop QUESTION
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 72
Drag and Drop QUESTION

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 73
Drag and Drop QUESTION

Match the HSRP states on the left with the correct definition on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 74
Drag and Drop QUESTION

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 75
Refer to the exhibit.

When troubleshooting a network problem, a network analyzer is connected to Port f0/1 of a LAN switch. Which command can prevent BPDU transmission on this port?

A. spanning-tree portfast bpduguard enable
B. spanning-tree bpduguard default
C. spanning-tree portfast bpdufilter default
D. no spanning-tree link-type shared

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 76
Which four LACP components are used to determine which hot-standby links become active after an interface failure within an EtherChannel bundle? (Choose four.)

A. LACP system priority
B. LACP port priority
C. interface MAC address
D. system ID
E. port number
F. hot-standby link identification number
G. interface bandwidth

Correct Answer: ABDE

QUESTION 77
RSPAN has been configured on a Cisco Catalyst switch; however, traffic is not being replicated to the remote switch. Which type of misconfiguration is a cause?

A. The RSPAN designated VLAN is missing the remote span command.
B. The local and remote RSPAN switches are configured using different session IDs.
C. The local RSPAN switch is replicating only Rx traffic to the remote switch.
D. The local switch is overloaded with the amount of sourced traffic that must be replicated to the remote switch.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 78
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer has run the show EtherChannel summary command and the output is displayed. Which statement about the status of the EtherChannel is true?

A. The EthcrChannel is operational and configured for PAgP
B. The EttherChannel is down because of a mismatched EtherChannel protocol
C. The EttherChannel is down and configured for LACP
D. The EttherChannel is operational and is usig no EtherChannel protocol

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 79
Which two statements about default FHRP behavior are true?(Choose two)

A. A backup GLBP active virtual gateway can become active only if the current active virtual gateway fails.
B. Preemption is enabled by default.
C. Unless specifically Configured, the priority of an HSRP router is 200.
D. A standby HSRP router becomes active if it has a higher priority than the priority of the current active router.
E. A VRRP backup virtual router becomes the master router if its priority is higher than the priority of the current master router.

Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 80
After UDLD is implemented, a Network Administrator noticed that one port stops receiving UDLD packets. This port continues to reestablish until after eight failed retries. The port then transitions into the errdisable state. Which option describes what causes the port to go into the errdisable state?

A. Normal UDLD operations that prevent traffic loops.
B. UDLD port is configured in aggressive mode.
C. UDLD is enabled globally.
D. UDLD timers are inconsistent.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
With UDLD aggressive mode enabled, when a port on a bidirectional link that has a UDLD neighbor relationship established stops receiving UDLD packets, UDLD tries to reestablish the connection with the neighbor. After eight failed retries, the port is disabled.

QUESTION 81
To follow the Layer 2 switching guidelines, a network engineer decides to create a separate spanning tree for every group of 10 VLANs. Which version of spanning tree is appropriate to meet the company policy?

A. MST
B. PVST+
C. RSTP
D. RPVST+
E. STP

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 82
A network engineer is installing a switch for temporary workers to connect to. The engineer does not want this switch participating in Spanning Tree with the rest of the network; however, end user connectivity is still required. Which spanning-tree feature accomplishes this?

A. BPDUblock
B. BPDUfilter
C. BPDUignore
D. BPDUguard
E. BPDUdisable

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 83
Refer to the exhibit

What is the result of the SPAN configuration on a Cisco switch?

A. Configure a SPAN session to monitor the received traffic on interface g0/4 only for VLAN 3.
B. Configure a SPAN session to monitor the received traffic on interface g0/4 for all VLANs except VLAN 3.
C. Configure a SPAN session to monitor the received traffic on interface g0/5 only for VLAN 3.
D. Configure a SPAN session to monitor the received traffic on interface g0/5 for all VLANs except VLAN 3.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 84
When SDM templates are configured, which action must be performed for the configuration to take effect?

A. reload
B. shutdown
C. write memory
D. backup config

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 85
Which statement about the MAC address sticky entries in the switch when the copy run start command is entered is true?

A. A sticky MAC address is retained when the switch reboots.
B. A sticky MAC address can be a unicast or multicast address.
C. A sticky MAC address is lost when the switch reboots.
D. A sticky MAC address ages out of the MAC address table after 600 seconds.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 86
Enablement of which feature puts the port into err-disabled state when the port has PortFast enabled and it receives BPDUs?

A. BPDU filtering
B. BackboneFast
C. EtherChannel
D. BPDU guard

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 87
Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration ensures that the Cisco Discovery Protocol packet update frequency sent from DSW1 to ALS1 is half of the default value?

A. DSW1(config)#cdp timer 90
B. DSW1(config-if)#cdp holdtime 60
C. DSW1(config)#cdp timer 30
D. DSW1(config)#cdp holdtime 90
E. DSW1(config-if)#cdp holdtime 30
F. DSW1(config-if)#cdp timer 60

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 88
Interfaces are assigned to a VLAN, and then the VLAN is deleted. Which state are these interfaces in after the VLAN is deleted?

A. They remain up, but they are reassigned to the default VLAN.
B. They go down until they are reassigned to a VLAN.
C. They go down, but they are reassigned to the default VLAN.
D. They remain up, but they are reassigned to the native VLAN.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 89
Which feature is automatically configured when an administrator enables a voice VLAN?

A. 802.1Q trunking
B. PortFast
C. QoS
D. private VLANs

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 90
Which statement describes one major issue that VTP can cause in an enterprise network when a new switch is introduced in the network in VTP mode server?

A. It can cause network access ports to go into err-disabled state.
B. It can cause a network-wide VLAN configuration change if the revision number on the new switch is higher.
C. It can cause a network-wide VLAN configuration change if the revision number on the new switch is lower.
D. It can cause routing loops.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 91
A network administrator configures 10 extended VLANs ranging from VLANs 3051 to 3060 in an enterprise network. Which version of VTP supports these extended VLANs?

A. version 1
B. version 2
C. version 3
D. VTP does not recognize extended VLANs.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 92
An engineer is configuring an EtherChannel between two switches using LACP. If the EtherChannel mode on switch 1 is configured to active, which two modes on switch 2 establish an operational EtherChannel? (Choose two)

A. active
B. auto
C. desirable
D. on
E. passive

Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 93
When a Layer 2 EtherChannel is configured, which statement about placement of the IP address is true?

A. The IP address is placed on the highest numbered member port.
B. The IP address is placed on the port-channel logical interface.
C. The IP address is placed on the lowest numbered member port.
D. The IP address is assigned via DHCP only.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 94
Which option is valid for EtherChannel load balancing?

A. source MAC address and source IP address
B. destination MAC address and destination IP address
C. source MAC address and destination IP address
D. source MAC address and destination MAC address

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 95
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is configuring EtherChannel between two switches and notices the console message on switch 2. Based on the output, which option describes the reason for this error?

A. Switch 1 does not have enough member ports configured.
B. Switch 2 has too many member ports configured.
C. The port channel interface numbers do not match.
D. The EtherChannel protocols do not match.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 96
Refer to the exhibit. DSW1 should share the same MST region with switch DSW2. Which statement is true?

A. Configure DSW1 with the same version number, and VLAN-to-instance mapping as shown on DSW2.
B. DSW2 uses the VTP server mode to automatically propagate the MST configuration to DSW1.
C. DSW1 automatically inherits MST configuration from DSW2 because they have the same domain name.
D. Configure DSW1 with the same region name, revision number, and VLAN-to-instance mapping as shown on DSW2.
E. DSW1 is in VTP client mode with a lower configuration revision number, therefore, it automatically inherits MST configuration from DW2.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 97
Which two statements about SPAN source and destination ports during an active session are true? (Choose two)

A. The source port can be only an Ethernet physical port.
B. The source port can be monitored in multiple SPAN sessions.
C. The destination port can be destination in multiple SPAN sessions.
D. The destination port does not participate in STP.
E. You can mix individual source ports and source VLANs within a single session.

Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 98
In a switch stack environment, what is the total bidirectional traffic flow between two logical counterrotating paths?

A. 16 Gbps
B. 32 Gbps
C. 64 Gbps
D. 128 Gbps

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 99
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the SPAN and RSPAN configuration on SW1 is true?

A. SPAN session 2 only monitors egress traffic exiting port FastEthernet 0/14.
B. RSPAN session 1 monitors activity on VLAN 50 of a remote switch.
C. RSPAN session 1 is incompletely configured for monitoring.
D. SPAN session 2 monitors all traffic entering and exiting port FastEthernet 0/15.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 100
Which information does the subordinate switch in a switch stack keep for all the VLANs that are configured on it?

A. VLAN database
B. DHCP snooping database
C. spanning trees
D. routing information

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 101
Which option is the minimum number of bindings that the DHCP snooping database can store?

A. 1000 bindings
B. 2000 bindings
C. 5000 bindings
D. 8000 bindings

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 102
On which layer does IP source guard provide filtering to prevent a malicious host from impersonating the IP address of a legitimate host?

A. Layer 1
B. Layer 2
C. Layer 3
D. Layer 7

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 103
By default, what is the state of port security on a switch?

A. disabled
B. on
C. off
D. learning

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 104
To provide security, a service provider configures various private VLANs in its backbone network infrastructure to prevent certain VLAN communication to each other. Which version of VTP supports the use of private VLANs?

A. Version 1
B. Version 3
C. VTP does not support private VLANs
D. Version 2

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 105
Which statement about HSRP, GLBP, and VRRP is true?

A. VRRP group members communicate using multicast address 224.0.0.102.
B. MAC address 0000.0c07.acOc indicates that default gateway redundancy is provided through GLBP.
C. HSRP group members communicate using multicast address 224.0.0.18.
D. GLBP uses UDP port 3222 (source and destination) for hello messages.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 106
Which two statements about HSRP, GLBP, and VRRP are true? (Choose two)

A. HSRP is the preferred protocol to be used on multivendor environments.
B. VRRP has one master router, one standby router, and many listening routers.
C. GLBP allows for a maximum of four MAC addresses per group.
D. HSRP supports up to 255 groups on the same switch or router.
E. VRRP is a Cisco proprietary protocol.

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 107
Refer to the exhibit. Which option is the most likely explanation of the duplicate address message logged?

A. spanning-tree loop
B. HSRP misconfiguration
C. a PC with IP of 10.10.1.1
D. a hardware problem

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 108
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer changes the default native VLAN to VLAN 999. After applying the settings on the uplinks to the core switches, the switch control traffic, such as CDP and VTP, is no longer working. The standard configuration is used for each uplink. What is wrong with the configuration?

A. The interface is administratively down.
B. The encapsulation type is incorrect.
C. The switchport mode trunk command should be first in the output.
D. The native VLAN is not present on the trunk.
E. The control traffic must be manually enabled on the new native VLAN.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 109
Which two options are two results of using the command spanning-tree vlan 50 root primary within a spanning-tree network under global configuration? (Choose two)

A. Spanning tree determines the priority of the current root for VLAN 50 and reduces the priority of the local switch to a lower value.
B. The priority value for VLAN 50 is set to 4094 on the root while the local switch priority is set to 32768.
C. The spanning-tree timers are reduced to improve the convergence time for VLAN 50.
D. All ports that are configured on the current switch with VLAN 50 transition to designated ports.
E. The switchport that is configured for VLAN 50 is the primary connection to the spanning-tree root switch.

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 110
An access switch at a remote location is connected to the spanning-tree root with redundant uplinks. A network engineer notices that there are issues with the physical cabling of the current root port. The engineer decides to force the secondary link to be the desired forwarding root port. Which action accomplishes this task?

A. Change the link-type to point-to-point.
B. Enable Rapid Spanning Tree to converge using the secondary link.
C. Adjust the secondary link to have a lower priority than the primary link.
D. Apply a BPDU filter on the primary interface of the remote switches.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 111
A network engineer wants to make sure that an access switch will never become a Spanning Tree root for VLAN 5. What action will accomplish this task?

A. adjust STP priority to the maximum value
B. disable STP globally
C. apply root guard to all outgoing neighbor interfaces
D. enable MSTP and use a different revision number than all other switches

Correct Answer: A

Exam B
QUESTION 112
Drag and Drop QUESTIONDrag and drop the characteristic from the left to the matching Layer 2 protocol on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 113
What action should a network administrator take to enable VTP pruning on an entire management domain?

A. Enable VTP pruning on any client switch in the domain.
B. Enable VTP pruning on every switch in the domain.
C. Enable VTP pruning on any switch in the management domain.
D. Enable VTP pruning on a VTP server in the management domain.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 114
Refer to the exhibit. BPDUGuard is enabled on both ports of SwitchA. Initially, LinkA is connected and forwarding traffic. A new LinkB is then attached between SwitchA and HubA. Which two statements about the possible result of attaching the second link are true? (Choose two)

A. The switch port attached to LinkB does not transition to up.
B. One or both of the two switch ports attached to the hub goes into the err-disabled state when a BPDU is received.
C. Both switch ports attached to the hub transitions to the blocking state.
D. A heavy traffic load could cause BPDU transmissions to be blocked and leave a switching loop.
E. The switch port attached to LinkA immediately transitions to the blocking state.

Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 115
What is the effect of configuring the following command on a switch?
Switch(config) # spanning-tree portfast bpdufilter default

A. If BPDUs are received by a port configured for PortFast, then PortFast is disabled and the BPDUs are processed normally.
B. If BPDUs are received by a port configured for PortFast, they are ignored and none are sent.
C. If BPDUs are received by a port configured for PortFast, the port transitions to the forwarding state.
D. The command enables BPDU filtering on all ports regardless of whether they are configured for BPDU filtering at the interface level.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 116
Which protocol will enable a group of routers to form a single virtual router and will use the real IP address of a router as the gateway address?

A. Proxy ARP
B. HSRP
C. IRDP
D. VRRP
E. GLBP

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 117
Which two statements are true about recommended practices that are to be used in a local VLAN solution design where layer 2 traffic is to be kept to a minimum? (Choose two)

A. Routing should occur at the access layer if voice VLANs are utilized. Otherwise, routing should occur
at the distribution layer.
B. Routing may be performed at all layers but is most commonly done at the core and distribution layers.
C. Routing should not be performed between VLANs located on separate switches.
D. VLANs should be local to a switch.
E. VLANs should be localized to a single switch unless voice VLANs are being utilized.

Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 118
What two things occur when an RSTP edge port receives a BPDU? (Choose two)

A. The port immediately transitions to the forwarding state.
B. The switch generates a Topology Change Notification BPDU.
C. The port immediately transitions to the err-disable state.
D. The port becomes a normal STP switch port.

Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 119
How does VTP pruning enhance network bandwidth?

A. by restricting unicast traffic across VTP domains
B. by reducing unnecessary flooding of traffic to inactive VLANs
C. by limiting the spreading of VLAN information
D. by disabling periodic VTP updates

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 120
In the hardware address 0000.0c07.ac0a, what does 07.ac represent?

A. vendor code
B. HSRP group number
C. HSRP router number
D. HSRP well-known physical MAC address
E. HSRP well-known virtual MAC address

Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 121
Which statement is true about RSTP topology changes?

A. Any change in the state of the port generates a TC BPDU.
B. Only nonedge ports moving to the forwarding state generate a TC BPDU.
C. If either an edge port or a nonedge port moves to a block state, then a TC BPDU is generated.
D. Only edge ports moving to the blocking state generate a TC BPDU.
E. Any loss of connectivity generates a TC BPDU.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 122
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the debug output, which three statements about HSRP are true? (Choose three)

A. The final active router is the router with IP address 172.16.11.111.
B. The router with IP address 172.16.11.111 has preempt configured.
C. The priority of the router with IP address 172.16.11.112 is preferred over the router with IP address 172.16.11.111.
D. The IP address 172.16.11.115 is the virtual HSRP IP address.
E. The router with IP address 172.16.11.112 has nonpreempt configured.
F. The router with IP address 172.16.11.112 is using default HSRP priority.

Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 123
What condition was match during etherchannel configuration?

A. Spanning tree port priority
B. Spanning tree cost
C. Interface Description
D. Trunk mode
E. Trunk allow vlan

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 124
In a switch stack where is the the SDM template stored?

A. All switches in stack
B. Master switch
C. Flash memory

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 125
Refer to exhibit, which two statements correctly indicate when an SNMP trap is set to the switch? (Choose two)
Switch(config)# snamp-server enable traps mac-notifcationSwitch(config)# mac address-table notification threshold
Switch(config)# mac address-table notification threshold limit 60
Switch(config)# mac address-table notification mac-move

A. When a new workstation connects to port F0/1
B. When 61 MAC address are in the switch
C. When 61 percent of the Address table capacity is used
D. When the switch loses power and reboots
E. When the phone previously on Fa0/2 is now connect to Fa0/5

Correct Answer: CE

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